ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.
Question 2 of 5
You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen. This is the most appropriate action as the patient is cyanotic, responsive to painful stimuli, and exhibiting stridorous respirations, indicating potential airway compromise. Providing positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen can help improve oxygenation and support the patient's breathing. Summary of other choices: B: Obtaining vital signs is important, but in this urgent situation, addressing the airway and breathing takes precedence. C: Contacting medical direction may delay essential treatment. Immediate intervention is crucial in this scenario. D: Applying a pulse oximeter can provide valuable information, but administering oxygen and ensuring adequate ventilation should be the priority in a patient with compromised breathing.
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual examination are unremarkable for findings, although she is very tender at the introitus. Urine analysis has some white blood cells but no red blood cells or bacteria. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, lymphadenopathy, and multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva are classic for genital herpes. The new sexual partner and absence of red blood cells or bacteria in the urine support a sexually transmitted infection. The presence of white blood cells in urine and absence of other systemic symptoms help differentiate it from other choices. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) present as warty lesions and do not cause the systemic symptoms described. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) would typically present as a single painless ulcer and is unlikely given the multiple shallow ulcers described. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) does not match the clinical presentation of fever, burning with urination, and lymphadenopathy.
Question 4 of 5
A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. He notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a set of boxes that were heavier than usual. He also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. He wants to know if he needs to be off of work. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated disc?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Straight-leg raise. This test is used to assess for herniated disc by stretching the sciatic nerve. A positive test is indicated by reproduction of leg pain when the leg is raised between 30 to 70 degrees. This suggests nerve root irritation, common in herniated disc. A: Leg-length test - This test is used to assess for leg length discrepancy, not herniated disc. C: Tinel's test - This test is used to assess for nerve compression, typically in carpal tunnel syndrome, not specifically for herniated disc. D: Phalen's test - This test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, not herniated disc.
Question 5 of 5
Explain the significance of decreased tactile fremitus in the context of respiratory assessments.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreased tactile fremitus suggests fluid or air in the pleural space, which can occur in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. This decrease in tactile fremitus is due to the transmission of vibrations from the vocal cords being impeded by the presence of fluid or air between the lung and chest wall. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased tactile fremitus is not typically associated with increased lung density, normal lung function, or lung tumors.
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