ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.
Question 2 of 9
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.
Question 4 of 9
A 65-year-old has a history of one kidney with early renal insufficiency. He is diagnosed with pneumonia and will require:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower dose of antibiotics. The rationale is that the patient has early renal insufficiency, which means the kidney may have difficulty clearing medications from the body. Therefore, a lower dose of antibiotics is needed to prevent potential drug toxicity. A shorter course of antibiotics (choice A) may not be effective in treating pneumonia adequately. A longer course of antibiotics (choice B) may increase the risk of drug accumulation in the body. A higher dose of antibiotics (choice D) can lead to increased toxicity in a patient with renal insufficiency. Thus, the most appropriate option is to reduce the dose to ensure safe and effective treatment.
Question 5 of 9
Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters commonly associated with mood regulation. Medications that affect these neurotransmitters can lead to symptoms of depression as a side effect. B: Gabapentin is not primarily associated with mood regulation. C: Milnacipran is an SNRI used to treat depression, not cause it. D: Cortisol is a stress hormone, not a neurotransmitter directly linked to depression symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
Symptoms associated with small bowel obstruction usually include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting and pain. Small bowel obstruction typically leads to vomiting due to the blockage preventing food from passing through. Pain occurs as the intestine tries to push against the obstruction. Nausea and diarrhea (choice A) are more common in large bowel obstructions. Hematemesis and bloody stool (choice C) suggest bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Indigestion and anorexia (choice D) are not specific to small bowel obstruction. Therefore, the combination of vomiting and pain is indicative of small bowel obstruction.
Question 7 of 9
When evaluating a 17-year-old girl with infrequent menstrual periods, which finding suggests probable hyperandrogenism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hirsutism. Hirsutism is the presence of excessive hair growth in a male pattern distribution in women, which is a common sign of hyperandrogenism. Elevated androgen levels can lead to hirsutism in women, especially in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome. High pitch voice (A) and obesity (D) are not direct indicators of hyperandrogenism. While polycystic ovaries (C) can be associated with hyperandrogenism, the presence of hirsutism is a more specific and direct finding in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
You feel a small mass that you think is a lymph node. It is mobile in both the up-and- down and side-to-side directions. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lymph node. A mobile mass that is palpable and moves in multiple directions is characteristic of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the immune system and can move freely when touched. Incorrect choices: A: Cancer - A cancerous mass would typically be fixed and not mobile. C: Deep scar - Scars are usually fixed and do not move when touched. D: Muscle - Muscles are usually deeper in the body and not typically palpable as a mobile mass.
Question 9 of 9
Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual "lub dup." How would you document your examination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Regularly irregular rhythm. This is the appropriate documentation for Ms. Wright's presentation as her pulse demonstrates a pattern of irregularity with every fourth beat sounding different. This indicates a regularly irregular rhythm, where there is a discernible pattern to the irregularity. Rationale: 1. Regular rate and rhythm (Choice A) is incorrect as Ms. Wright's palpitations and the irregularity in her pulse indicate an irregular rhythm. 2. Irregularly irregular rhythm (Choice B) is incorrect as this term is used to describe arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, which do not have a discernible pattern of irregularity. 3. Bradycardia (Choice D) is incorrect as it refers to a slow heart rate, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the focus is on the irregular rhythm. In summary, the correct choice (C) accurately describes the specific irregular pattern observed in Ms. Wright's pulse, distinguishing it from