GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

Questions 31

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ATI Pharmacology Practice B Questions

Question 1 of 5

GTN has its major effect on effort angina by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) relieves effort angina primarily by reducing preload (venodilation) and afterload (arterial dilation), decreasing myocardial oxygen demand, a true and major mechanism. It doesn't primarily reduce coronary vasospasm (more relevant in variant angina), nor significantly affect the renin-angiotensin system in this context. While it causes some coronary vasodilation, this is secondary to systemic effects on demand reduction. It doesn't cause systemic vasoconstriction (opposite effect). The preload/afterload reduction is the cornerstone of GTN's efficacy in stable angina, improving oxygen supply-demand balance, a critical concept in ischemic heart disease management.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oral drugs face first-pass metabolism in the liver, reducing bioavailability, so higher doses are needed for therapeutic effect compared to IV (100% bioavailability), sublingual (bypasses liver), or rectal (partial bypass). Oral route's loss to metabolism drives dosage needs, a pharmacokinetic distinction.

Question 3 of 5

The patient tells the nurse he worries about everything all day, feels confused, restless, and just can't stop worrying. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Persistent worry, confusion, and restlessness suggest generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)-relaxation techniques (e.g., breathing) help manage, a practical response. Social anxiety ties to specific triggers, not all-day worry. PTSD needs trauma history, not indicated. Panic disorder features acute attacks, not constant worry. GAD diagnosis with techniques fits symptoms, per psychiatry.

Question 4 of 5

The client takes a bisphosphonate for osteoporosis. Which assessment is best in determining the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

A 33-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The patient had a sudden onset of fever and her temperature is now 40°C (104°F). She has no sick contacts. The mother mentions that she is on a medication for schizophrenia but could not remember the name. A complete blood count shows 250 neutrophils per microliter. Which of the following medications is she likely taking?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fever and severe neutropenia (250 neutrophils/μL) in a schizophrenic patient suggest clozapine . Clozapine causes agranulocytosis, a rare but serious side effect requiring monitoring. Olanzapine , Quetiapine , Risperidone , and Haloperidol (E) rarely cause this. Clozapine's risk explains the acute presentation, necessitating immediate cessation.

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