ATI RN
NCLEX Pediatric Respiratory Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Gross motor development of an infant can also be seen to the head onto what degree the infant can lift it when prone. When can you expect an infant to raise his head 90° when prone?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) 4 months. At around 4 months of age, infants typically develop the strength and control in their neck and upper body muscles to lift their head to a 90° angle when placed in a prone (on stomach) position. This milestone is an important indicator of the infant's gross motor development and is a crucial step towards achieving further motor skills, such as rolling over and eventually crawling. Option A) 1 month is too early for an infant to lift their head to a 90° angle. At this stage, most infants are still developing their neck muscles and have limited control over their head movement. Option B) 2 months is also premature for this milestone as infants are still in the early stages of building neck strength and control. Option C) 3 months is closer to the correct timeline, but most infants will not have the full capability to lift their head to 90° at this stage. Understanding the timeline of gross motor development in infants is crucial for pediatric nurses as it allows them to assess a child's growth and development accurately. By recognizing the expected milestones, nurses can identify any potential delays or concerns early on and provide appropriate interventions to support the child's progress.
Question 2 of 5
Gino Ang, who weighed 7 lbs. at birth, was discharged from the hospital on his 3rd day of life. During the nest 2 weeks at home he developed severe vomiting & weight loss, although his appetite remained good. Finally, Gino's mother brought him to the hospital ER for treatment. Gino's PE revealed severe dehydration, epigastric pain & distention, and a palpable olive-size mass in the right upper quadrant. Vomiting due to this type of obstruction is typically characterized as: 1. Bile stained 2. Initiated with great force 3. Decreasing in severity in time 4. Unaccompanied by nausea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) 1,2 because the symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of pyloric stenosis, a condition commonly seen in infants. Vomiting in pyloric stenosis is typically bile-stained (option 1) due to the obstruction near the pyloric sphincter preventing food from reaching the intestines where bile is added. The characteristic projectile vomiting (option 2) occurs as the stomach tries to forcefully expel the contents. This pattern of vomiting can lead to severe dehydration and weight loss as seen in Gino. Option B) 1,3 and Option C) 2,3 are incorrect because vomiting in pyloric stenosis does not decrease in severity over time; it actually worsens if left untreated. Option D) 2,4 is incorrect because vomiting in pyloric stenosis is typically associated with nausea due to the forceful nature of the vomiting. For nursing students preparing for the NCLEX, understanding common pediatric conditions like pyloric stenosis is crucial. Recognizing the signs and symptoms, as well as understanding the pathophysiology behind them, can help in early identification and intervention, ultimately improving patient outcomes. Being able to differentiate between different types of vomiting patterns can aid in clinical decision-making and providing appropriate care for pediatric patients.
Question 3 of 5
The x-ray findings of right ventricular hypertrophy combined with decreased pulmonary blood flow are suggestive of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Tricuspid atresia. Tricuspid atresia is a congenital heart defect where the tricuspid valve is missing or abnormally developed, leading to a lack of communication between the right atrium and right ventricle. This results in right ventricular hypertrophy as the right ventricle has to work harder to pump blood into the pulmonary artery, causing decreased pulmonary blood flow. Option B) Patent ductus arteriosus is incorrect because it is characterized by a persistent opening between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow, not decreased. Option C) Pulmonic valve stenosis is incorrect as it would typically present with increased pressure in the right ventricle and increased pulmonary blood flow, rather than decreased. Option D) Aortic valve stenosis is incorrect as it affects the left side of the heart, leading to left ventricular hypertrophy and symptoms such as chest pain and dizziness, not right-sided findings. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology of congenital heart defects is crucial in pediatric nursing. Recognizing the specific characteristics of each defect, such as in this case, helps nurses provide appropriate care and anticipate potential complications for pediatric patients with cardiac conditions. This knowledge is essential for NCLEX preparation as it tests the ability to apply theoretical knowledge to clinical scenarios.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is admitting a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of giardiasis. Which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the case of a child being admitted to the hospital with giardiasis, the correct medication that the nurse would expect to be prescribed is Metronidazole (Flagyl). Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis due to its effectiveness against the parasite causing the infection. Prednisone (Orapred) is a corticosteroid used for reducing inflammation, and it is not indicated for the treatment of giardiasis. Amoxicillin clavulanate (Augmentin) and Clarithromycin (Biaxin) are antibiotics commonly used for bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like giardiasis. Educationally, it is important for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam to understand the specific medications used to treat various pediatric conditions. Understanding the rationale behind medication choices is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. By knowing the correct medication for giardiasis, nurses can ensure appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Airborne isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Chickenpox. Airborne isolation is required for a child hospitalized with chickenpox due to its highly contagious nature. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Isolating the child helps prevent the spread of the virus to other patients, visitors, and healthcare workers. Regarding the other options: A) Exanthema subitum (roseola): Roseola is transmitted through respiratory secretions but does not require airborne isolation. Contact precautions are usually sufficient. B) Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease): Fifth disease is spread through respiratory secretions and blood but does not require airborne precautions unless there are complications. C) Mumps: Mumps is also transmitted through respiratory droplets but typically requires droplet precautions, not airborne isolation. Educational context: Understanding the specific isolation requirements for different infectious diseases is crucial for pediatric nurses to prevent the spread of infections within healthcare settings. Proper isolation precautions help protect vulnerable patients, staff, and visitors from contracting potentially serious illnesses. Nurses must be knowledgeable about when to implement airborne, droplet, contact, or standard precautions to provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients.