Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli were extracted in anoxic environment from the patient's wound contaminated with soil. Cultivation on a blood-glucose agar resulted in growth of the colonies surrounded with hemolysis zone. What agent was extracted from the wound?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus commonly found in soil. It produces hemolysis on blood agar, as described in the question. Clostridium botulinum is also a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus, but it does not typically cause hemolysis. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci, not a bacillus. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, not a gram-positive spore-forming bacillus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is responsible for causing amoebic dysentery, which presents with bloody diarrhea. The "raspberry jelly" appearance of stool is due to the presence of mucosal lining and blood. The large mononuclear cells with absorbed red blood cells are characteristic of the histopathology of Entamoeba histolytica infection. Giardia lamblia (B) causes watery diarrhea, not bloody stools. Campylobacter jejuni (C) is a bacterial pathogen associated with gastroenteritis, but does not typically cause bloody diarrhea. Toxoplasma gondii (D) causes toxoplasmosis, a systemic infection with symptoms such as fever and lymphadenopathy, but not bloody diarrhea.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythrocytic schizogony. In this case, the patient most likely has malaria, specifically caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The fever attacks every 2 days (tertian fever) are characteristic of P. falciparum infection. The cycle of erythrocytic schizogony in P. falciparum is around 48 hours, leading to the recurring fever pattern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tissue schizogony does not cause the characteristic fever pattern, exotoxins are not typically involved in malaria fever, and gametocytes do not directly cause fever attacks.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct serological test for diagnosing toxoplasmosis is the Complement Binding Assay (A) because it detects antibodies specific to the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. This test is highly sensitive and specific for toxoplasmosis. Choice B, Precipitation test, is not used for toxoplasmosis diagnosis but rather for other diseases like syphilis. Choice C, Neutralization test, is not specific for toxoplasmosis and is used for other types of infections. Choice D, Widal's test, is used for diagnosing typhoid fever and is not relevant for toxoplasmosis. In summary, the correct answer (A) is specific to toxoplasmosis, while the other choices are used for different diseases and are not suitable for diagnosing toxoplasmosis.