ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Gram-negative rods producing blue-green pigment and a fruity odor were isolated from a wound infection. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which gives a characteristic color to the colonies. The fruity odor is due to the production of a compound called 2-aminoacetophenone by P. aeruginosa. These features are classic for P. aeruginosa and help differentiate it from other Gram-negative rods. Proteus mirabilis (B) typically does not produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) and Escherichia coli (D) also do not exhibit these specific characteristics associated with P. aeruginosa.
Question 2 of 9
Disinfection with chemicals acting on cell surface:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenols. Phenols act on the cell surface by disrupting cell membranes and denaturing proteins, leading to cell death. Soaps (A) work by lifting dirt and microbes off surfaces, not directly acting on cell surfaces. Amines (C) are typically used as disinfectants targeting specific enzymes in microbes, not cell surfaces. Polymyxin (D) is an antibiotic that works by disrupting cell membranes internally, not on the cell surface.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following stains is the most widely used differential stain in hematology laboratories?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kinyoun stain. This stain is the most widely used differential stain in hematology labs because it is specifically designed for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It differentiates these bacteria from others based on their cell wall composition. Carbolfuchsin stain (A) is used for acid-fast bacteria in microbiology. Wright's stain (B) is used for blood cell morphology. Ziehl-Neelsen stain (C) is also used for acid-fast bacteria but is less commonly used compared to Kinyoun stain in hematology labs.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.
Question 5 of 9
An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole. 1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis. 2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal. 3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal. 4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses due to its presence in undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk. Campylobacteriosis is a leading cause of bacterial gastroenteritis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) causes pneumonia, not foodborne illnesses. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) causes tuberculosis, not foodborne illnesses. Haemophilus influenzae (D) can cause respiratory infections but is not commonly associated with foodborne illnesses.
Question 7 of 9
Elementary and reticular bodies are morphological?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. Elementary bodies (EBs) and reticular bodies (RBs) are two distinct forms of Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium causing various infections. EBs are the infectious form, while RBs are the replicative form within host cells. Mycoplasma genitalium (choice A) lacks a cell wall and does not have these specific morphological forms. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) is an obligate intracellular bacterium but does not exhibit the elementary and reticular body forms characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as only Chlamydia trachomatis exhibits the elementary and reticular bodies.
Question 8 of 9
Microscopic examination of a smear from a chancre revealed spiral microorganisms. The bacteria were thin and mobile with 8-12 regular coils. What is the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Syphilis. The spiral microorganisms described are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. The thin and mobile bacteria with 8-12 regular coils match the morphology of Treponema pallidum. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, which are thicker and have hook-like ends, different from the described bacteria. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which has a different appearance than the thin, coiled bacteria in the smear. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which typically have irregular coils, unlike the regular coils seen in the smear.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can lead to foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin, Salmonella enterica produces salmonella toxin, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins like shiga toxin. These toxins can cause severe foodborne illnesses. Therefore, all of the above bacteria can produce toxins that lead to foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C alone are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce toxins that lead to foodborne illnesses.