Gram-negative diplococci were isolated from a urethral discharge in a male patient with painful urination. What is the causative agent?

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Gram-negative diplococci were isolated from a urethral discharge in a male patient with painful urination. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is a gram-negative diplococci commonly associated with gonorrhea, which presents with symptoms like painful urination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is known to infect the urethra in males. Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are all gram-negative bacteria, but they are not typically associated with urethral discharge or gonorrhea. E. coli is commonly associated with urinary tract infections, Proteus vulgaris with wound infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae with pneumonia and other respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and the characteristics of the bacteria, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most appropriate causative agent in this case.

Question 2 of 9

Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through a medical procedure are called:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: iatrogenic infections. Iatrogenic infections refer to infections caused by medical or surgical treatment, including procedures that introduce microorganisms into the body. In this case, infections of the reproductive tract caused by medical procedures fall under this category. A: Chronic infections do not specifically refer to infections caused by medical procedures. B: Endogenous infections arise from organisms already present in or on the body, not introduced through medical procedures. C: Systemic infections affect the entire body, not specific to infections caused by medical procedures. Therefore, the term "iatrogenic infections" is the most appropriate choice in this context.

Question 3 of 9

Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.

Question 4 of 9

Differentiating media are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Endo, Gassner, and Levin are all examples of differential media used in microbiology. These media contain specific components that allow for the differentiation of different types of microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics or biochemical reactions. Lowenstein-Jensen and Petraniani (choice A) are selective media for mycobacteria, not differential. Apoholate-citrate agar and Brilliant-green phenol-red Lactose agar (choice B) are selective media for Salmonella and E. coli, respectively, not differential. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it includes examples of differential media commonly used for microbial identification.

Question 5 of 9

Virulence

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism, which can vary and is not a constant characteristic. It can be measured using LD50, which is the lethal dose that kills 50% of the test population. Therefore, all the statements in options A, B, and C are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of virulence.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

Question 7 of 9

Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.

Question 8 of 9

Production of RNA and DNA is called

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hantavirus. Hantavirus is considered a newly emerging disease because it was first identified in the late 20th century. It is transmitted to humans through rodents and can lead to severe respiratory illness. Malaria, Tuberculosis, and Chlamydia are not considered newly emerging diseases as they have been known for centuries and continue to be prevalent worldwide. Therefore, based on the timeline of discovery and emergence, Hantavirus is the most recent infectious disease among the options provided.

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