ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Graded dose-response curves are most useful for determining
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Graded dose-response curves plot individual response intensity to dose increases (e.g., pain relief), a pharmacodynamic tool. Population curves (e.g., ED50) suit groups, not individuals. Large or small groups aggregate data, missing individual nuance. Individual focus defines graded curves, key for tailoring therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with 2-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has not had sufficient relief with methotrexate alone. Her physician prescribes a biologic TNF-α inhibitor that consists of a recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor. Which of the following drugs is this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) progression despite methotrexate warrants a TNF-α inhibitor. The description-recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor-points to Etanercept . Adalimumab and Golimumab are monoclonal antibodies against TNF-α, not receptor fusions. Certolizumab is a PEGylated Fab fragment, not IgG-based. Etanercept , a fusion protein, binds TNF-α, neutralizing it, and matches the question's structure. Infliximab (E) is a chimeric antibody. Etanercept's unique receptor-IgG design distinguishes it, effectively reducing RA inflammation by sequestering TNF-α, a key cytokine, making it the precise answer here.
Question 3 of 5
A 52-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections complains of easy bruising as well as chronic fatigue. She is maintained on daily antibiotic prophylaxis with trimethoprim. Which of the following hematologic effects is likely as a result of long-term therapy with trimethoprim?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.