ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Glaucoma is the leading cause of blindness in African Americans and the second leading cause of blindness overall. What features would be noted on funduscopic examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glaucoma is a progressive optic neuropathy characterized by changes to the optic nerve head. One of the hallmark features seen on funduscopic examination in glaucoma is an increased cup-to-disc ratio. This refers to the ratio of the size of the optic cup (depression in the center of the optic nerve head) to the size of the optic disc (the pinkish-orange area around the cup). In glaucoma, there is typically an enlargement of the cup relative to the disc due to damage of the retinal ganglion cell axons. This change is often associated with thinning of the neuroretinal rim and loss of nerve fibers.
Question 2 of 9
It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid- epigastric area." Which of these categories does it belong to?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description provided, "It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid-epigastric area," indicates the current symptoms and location of the discomfort the patient is experiencing. This information is typically included in the Present Illness section of a medical history, which focuses on the patient's current health concerns, symptoms, and complaints. It helps the healthcare provider understand the nature of the problem and guide further evaluation and treatment. The Chief Complaint is usually a concise statement of the patient's main reason for seeking medical attention, the Personal and Social History includes information about the patient's lifestyle habits and social support, and the Review of Systems is a systematic inquiry about the patient's overall health.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain. Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen. On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin. The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side. What type of pain is this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of the rash on Mr. Garcia's chest associated with a burning pain that worsens with light touch indicates neuropathic pain. Neuropathic pain arises from damage or dysfunction of the nervous system, leading to abnormal pain sensations such as burning, tingling, or shooting pain. In this case, the presence of small blisters (vesicles) on reddened skin overlying an entire rib on one side suggests involvement of nerve fibers, characteristic of neuropathic pain. It is important to differentiate neuropathic pain from other types of pain (such as nociceptive/somatic, idiopathic, or psychogenic) as management strategies differ based on the underlying mechanisms of pain perception.
Question 4 of 9
A 22-year-old unemployed roofer presents to your clinic, complaining of pain in his testicle and penis. He states the pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He states it hurts when he urinates and he has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and ibuprofen without improvement. He denies any fever or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has had four previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is on oral contraceptives so he has not used condoms. His parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young man lying on his side. He appears mildly ill. His temperature is 2 and his blood pressure, respirations, and pulse are normal. On visualization of the penis he is circumcised, with no lesions or discharge from the meatus. Visualization of the scrotal skin appears unremarkable. Palpation of the testes shows severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges being noted with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis shows white blood cells and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The history and physical examination findings in this case are most consistent with acute epididymitis. Acute epididymitis is characterized by inflammation and infection of the epididymis, which is a tubular structure located behind the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms of acute epididymitis include pain and swelling in the scrotum, testicular pain, pain with urination, and sometimes penile discharge. The patient's symptoms of testicular and penile pain, as well as pain with urination, are classic for epididymitis. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall further support this diagnosis. In addition, the presence of white blood cells and bacteria on urine analysis is consistent with an infectious process like epididymitis.
Question 5 of 9
In obtaining a history, you note that a patient uses the word "largely" repeatedly, to the point of being a distraction to your task. Which word best describes this speech pattern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Perseveration is a speech pattern characterized by repeating a particular word, phrase, or topic excessively, even when it is no longer relevant to the conversation. In this scenario, the patient's repetitive use of the word "largely" to the point of distraction is indicative of perseveration. This can be a symptom of various neurological or psychiatric conditions, highlighting the importance of recognizing and addressing this speech pattern during the patient interview.
Question 6 of 9
Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asymmetric blood pressures (BPs) refer to a significant difference in blood pressures between the two arms. This is commonly seen in conditions like congenital narrowing of the aorta, also known as coarctation of the aorta. In this condition, there is a localized narrowing of the aorta, leading to higher blood pressure in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities. This results in a significant asymmetry in blood pressure readings between the arms. It is crucial to identify this sign as it can have important diagnostic and treatment implications.
Question 7 of 9
Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a woman over the age of 40 presents with a breast mass, the risk of the mass being cancerous is around 40%. This risk is higher in older women compared to younger women. It is important for Mrs. Patton to undergo further evaluation, which may include imaging tests, a biopsy, and consultation with a specialist to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. It is crucial to address breast masses promptly to ensure timely management and optimal outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Option D, "Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition," is true. Vaginismus is a condition characterized by involuntary contractions of the muscles around the vaginal entrance, which can make sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. In many cases, this condition is linked with psychological factors such as anxiety, fear, past trauma, or relationship issues. These psychological factors can lead to the muscles tightening up in anticipation of pain or discomfort during intercourse, hence causing vaginismus. With appropriate psychological interventions like counseling, therapy, or relaxation techniques, individuals experiencing vaginismus can often overcome the condition and engage in pain-free intercourse.
Question 9 of 9
A young woman undergoes cranial nerve testing. On touching the soft palate, her uvula deviates to the left. Which of the following is likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the uvula deviates to one side upon touching the soft palate, it indicates a dysfunction of the vagus nerve (CN X) on the side toward which the uvula deviates. In this case, the uvula deviates to the left, suggesting a lesion affecting the left CN X. This is because the palate and uvula are innervated by the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X), and damage to this nerve may result in an asymmetric elevation or deviation of the uvula upon stimulation. Therefore, a CN X lesion on the left side is the most likely explanation for the observed deviation of the uvula in this scenario.