ATI RN
Cardiovascular Conditions Pediatrics Test Bank Questions Free Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
Gingival hyperplasia is an adverse effect of therapy with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Phenytoin. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as an adverse effect. This condition is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. The mechanism of this side effect is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve alterations in the connective tissue metabolism in response to phenytoin. Cyclophosphamide (option B) is a chemotherapy agent used to treat various cancers and autoimmune conditions. It is not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Frusemide (option C) is a diuretic commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. It is not known to cause gingival hyperplasia. Carbamazepine (option D) is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures and certain types of nerve pain. While it can cause other dermatological side effects, gingival hyperplasia is not a known adverse effect of carbamazepine. Educationally, understanding the potential side effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses. By knowing which medications can lead to specific adverse effects, nurses can monitor patients for signs and symptoms, provide appropriate education, and collaborate with other healthcare team members to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Recognised features in Marfan's syndrome include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In Marfan's syndrome, mitral valve prolapse is a recognized feature. This is because Marfan's syndrome is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue, primarily caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene (option A). Mitral valve prolapse is a common cardiac manifestation in Marfan's syndrome due to the involvement of connective tissue in heart valves. Options C and D, cognitive impairment and myopia, are not typically associated with Marfan's syndrome. Cognitive impairment is not a primary feature of the syndrome, which primarily affects the skeletal, cardiovascular, and ocular systems. Myopia, while common in individuals with Marfan's syndrome, is not a specific diagnostic criteria for the condition. In an educational context, understanding the key features of Marfan's syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pediatrics. Recognizing these features can aid in early diagnosis, appropriate management, and referral to specialists for comprehensive care. It also highlights the importance of genetic counseling and family screening due to the hereditary nature of the syndrome. This knowledge enhances patient outcomes and quality of care provided to individuals with Marfan's syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
Regarding immunoglobins:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question about immunoglobulins, the correct answer is D) IgM is a complement-fixing antibody. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is efficient at activating the complement system to help clear pathogens. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) IgG2 concentrations increase with age: This statement is false. IgG2 levels do not necessarily increase with age. IgG levels may change due to various factors, but there is no specific age-related trend for IgG2. B) IgD is useful in mediating the late features of allergic reactions: IgD is not typically involved in mediating allergic reactions. IgE is the primary immunoglobulin involved in allergic responses. C) IgG2 subclass deficiency is associated with IgA deficiency: While IgA deficiency can sometimes coexist with IgG2 deficiency, it is not a direct association. These deficiencies are independent of each other and can occur separately. Educational context: Understanding the functions and characteristics of different immunoglobulin classes is crucial in pharmacology and nursing practice. Knowledge of their roles in immune responses helps healthcare professionals in diagnosing, treating, and managing various conditions. It is important for nurses to have a solid foundation in immunology to provide optimal patient care.
Question 4 of 5
Growth hormone secretion is raised by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the factors that influence growth hormone secretion is crucial. The correct answer is A) Sleep. Growth hormone secretion is primarily regulated by the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. During sleep, especially during the deep stages of sleep, the body secretes higher levels of growth hormone. This is because sleep is a period of rest and repair, and growth hormone plays a key role in tissue growth, repair, and overall development. Option B) Stress is incorrect because stress typically leads to an increase in cortisol secretion, not growth hormone. Cortisol is known as the stress hormone and has different physiological effects compared to growth hormone. Option C) IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor 1) is a hormone that is produced in response to growth hormone stimulation. It acts as a mediator of the effects of growth hormone in promoting growth and development. While IGF-1 is linked to growth hormone, it is not the direct stimulator of growth hormone secretion. Option D) Somatostatin is a hormone that inhibits the release of growth hormone. It acts in opposition to growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) and suppresses the secretion of growth hormone. Therefore, it is not responsible for raising growth hormone secretion. Understanding the factors that regulate growth hormone secretion is important in the management of various conditions, such as growth disorders in pediatric patients. By knowing the correct stimuli for growth hormone release, healthcare professionals can better address growth-related issues in children. Sleep hygiene and adequate rest are essential for optimal growth and development in pediatric patients.
Question 5 of 5
Long-chain triglyceride absorption requires:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and pediatric cardiovascular conditions, understanding the absorption of long-chain triglycerides is crucial for providing effective care. The correct answer, option B) Mixed micelle formation, is essential for long-chain triglyceride absorption. Mixed micelles are formed in the small intestine by the action of bile salts, which solubilize the triglycerides, aiding in their absorption into the enterocytes. Option A) Intraluminal bile salts is incorrect because while bile salts are necessary for the formation of mixed micelles, they are not directly involved in the absorption process themselves. Option C) Intraluminal trypsin is incorrect because trypsin is involved in the digestion of proteins, not triglycerides. Option D) Intact duodenum is incorrect as long-chain triglyceride absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine, specifically the jejunum and ileum, rather than the duodenum. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the intricate process of fat absorption in the pediatric population with cardiovascular conditions. Nurses need to grasp how different components in the digestive system work together to ensure proper absorption of nutrients, especially in vulnerable patient populations like children with cardiac issues. This knowledge is essential for providing appropriate nutritional support and medication management for pediatric patients with cardiovascular conditions.