Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Giardiasis is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a well-known protozoan parasite. Step 2: Protozoans are single-celled eukaryotic organisms commonly found in water sources. Step 3: Giardia intestinalis infects the intestine, causing symptoms like diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Step 4: Bacteria (Choice B) are prokaryotic organisms, different from protozoans. Step 5: Fungi (Choice C) are also eukaryotic but are not responsible for causing Giardiasis. Step 6: Viruses (Choice D) are not cellular and cannot independently cause Giardiasis. In summary, the correct answer is A (protozoan) because Giardia intestinalis is a protozoan parasite specifically known to cause Giardiasis, while the other choices (Bacterium, Fungus, Virus) do not match the characteristics of the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is the bacteria responsible for causing Lyme disease. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, Leptospira interrogans causes leptospirosis, and Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Borrelia burgdorferi is specifically associated with Lyme disease due to its transmission through tick bites and the characteristic symptoms it causes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CMV (Cytomegalovirus). CMV is the most common congenital infection worldwide due to its high prevalence and ability to be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy. It can lead to serious complications such as hearing loss, developmental delays, and vision problems in newborns. Listeria monocytogenes (B) is a foodborne pathogen, not typically associated with congenital infections. Rubella Virus (C) can cause congenital rubella syndrome but is less common globally compared to CMV. Syphilis (D) can also be transmitted from mother to fetus, but its prevalence and impact on congenital infections are lower compared to CMV.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tularemia. Ticks can transmit tularemia, a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. Ticks pick up the bacteria when feeding on infected animals and can then transmit it to humans through their bites. Botulism (A) is caused by toxins produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria, not transmitted by ticks. Anthrax (B) is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis, typically transmitted through contact with contaminated animal products. MRSA (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, commonly transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals or contaminated surfaces, not by ticks.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BCG vaccination. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals with a negative Mantoux test result, especially in countries where tuberculosis is prevalent. This vaccination can help provide protection against tuberculosis. Choice A is incorrect because repeating the Mantoux test in a month is unnecessary since the boy already had a negative reaction. Choice B is incorrect as serodiagnosis of tuberculosis is not the first-line approach for diagnosis, especially in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because urgent isolation is not necessary based solely on the Mantoux test result. Isolation is typically reserved for individuals with active tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic infection. The sudden deterioration, bursting pain, edema, foul appearance of wound, and presence of gas are indicative of gas gangrene caused by anaerobic bacteria like Clostridium perfringens. These bacteria thrive in low oxygen environments, such as deep wound tissues. The symptoms align with the classic presentation of gas gangrene, necessitating immediate surgical intervention. Choice B: Aerobic gram-negative, is incorrect because anaerobic bacteria, not aerobic gram-negative bacteria, are responsible for gas gangrene. Choice C: Putrid, is incorrect as it is a general term referring to foul-smelling decay and does not specify the type of infection. Choice D: Aerobic gram-positive, is incorrect as gas gangrene is typically caused by anaerobic bacteria, not aerobic gram-positive bacteria.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: components of the gram-negative cell wall. Bacterial endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. They are released upon bacterial cell lysis and can cause severe immune responses. A: Proteins in the cell wall - This is incorrect because endotoxins are not proteins but rather lipopolysaccharides. B: Secreted into the environment - Endotoxins are not actively secreted but are released upon cell death or lysis. C: Components of the gram-positive cell wall - Gram-positive bacteria do not have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, so endotoxins are not found in the gram-positive cell wall.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium, which means it has an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as endotoxins. Endotoxins are released when the bacterium is destroyed, causing an inflammatory response. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. Clostridium tetani (choice B) produces exotoxins, not endotoxins. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) is also a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. In summary, E. coli is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative bacterium that produces endotoxins, while the other choices are gram-positive bacteria that do not produce endotoxins.