ATI RN
mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Giardiasis is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a well-known protozoan parasite. Step 2: Protozoans are single-celled eukaryotic organisms commonly found in water sources. Step 3: Giardia intestinalis infects the intestine, causing symptoms like diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Step 4: Bacteria (Choice B) are prokaryotic organisms, different from protozoans. Step 5: Fungi (Choice C) are also eukaryotic but are not responsible for causing Giardiasis. Step 6: Viruses (Choice D) are not cellular and cannot independently cause Giardiasis. In summary, the correct answer is A (protozoan) because Giardia intestinalis is a protozoan parasite specifically known to cause Giardiasis, while the other choices (Bacterium, Fungus, Virus) do not match the characteristics of the
Question 2 of 9
During examination of the patient's oral cavity a dentist noticed deformation of the teeth and a crescent indentation of the upper right incisor. The teeth are undersized, barrel-shaped – tooth cervix is wider than its edge. The patient uses a hearing aid, suffers from visual impairment. What type of syphilis affects teeth in such way?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Late congenital syphilis. This is because the patient presents with Hutchinson's teeth, which are a characteristic feature of late congenital syphilis. Hutchinson's teeth are small, barrel-shaped teeth with a wider cervix and notched incisors. The patient's history of visual impairment and hearing aid use also support the diagnosis of late congenital syphilis, as these are common manifestations of this stage of the disease. Choice A, Primary syphilis, is incorrect because it typically presents with a painless sore at the site of infection, not dental abnormalities. Choice B, Early congenital syphilis, is incorrect as dental abnormalities in this stage are usually more severe, such as mulberry molars. Choice C, Neurosyphilis, is incorrect as it primarily affects the central nervous system and does not typically present with dental abnormalities.
Question 3 of 9
Lytic cycle of the bacteriophages differs from the lysogenic one by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage destroys the host cell upon release, whereas in the lysogenic cycle, the phage integrates its DNA into the host genome without killing the host immediately. This integration may lead to the destruction of the host cell at a later stage. Choice B is incorrect as lytic phages do destroy the host cell. Choice C is incorrect as the two cycles have distinct mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as there are clear differences between the lytic and lysogenic cycles.
Question 4 of 9
The only way to get energy in haematrophic bacteria is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Biological oxidation. Haematrophic bacteria obtain energy through biological oxidation, where they break down organic compounds to generate ATP for cellular processes. This process involves the transfer of electrons from the substrate to an electron transport chain to produce energy. Heat production (A) is a byproduct of metabolism, not the primary way to obtain energy. In biosynthetic reactions (C), energy is utilized rather than generated. Cultivation in culture media (D) is a method of growing bacteria but does not directly provide energy. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it aligns with the metabolic process of haematrophic bacteria.
Question 5 of 9
Some of the basic requirements for the antibacterial chemotherapeutics are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antibacterial chemotherapeutics need to be maximally toxic to microorganisms, not lead to allergic reactions, be stable, and have a wide spectrum of activity to effectively treat bacterial infections. A is incorrect because maximum toxicity to bacteria can lead to harmful side effects in the body. B is incorrect because rapid disintegration and insolubility in water would hinder the drug's effectiveness. D is incorrect because the basic requirements for antibacterial chemotherapeutics are outlined in option C.
Question 6 of 9
Which type of bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments due to their ability to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and utilizing fermentation or anaerobic respiration in anaerobic conditions. This flexibility allows them to thrive in diverse environments. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for respiration and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes can only survive in the absence of oxygen and would not thrive in aerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to grow and are not as versatile in adapting to varying oxygen levels compared to facultative anaerobes.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a major characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which play a role in pathogenicity and resistance to certain antibiotics. This outer membrane is a distinguishing feature of Gram-negative bacteria, as opposed to Gram-positive bacteria that have a thick peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, do have a cell wall (although it is different from Gram-positive bacteria), and do not contain teichoic acids.
Question 8 of 9
A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced in response to an infection, indicating an active or recent infection. In the case of a rubella virus infection in a fetus, IgM antibodies can be detected in the umbilical cord blood, confirming the presence of the virus. IgA antibodies are mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG antibodies indicate past infection or immunity, and IgD antibodies play a role in B cell activation but are not typically detected in this context.
Question 9 of 9
Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: streptococci. This term refers to beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis. "Diplococci" (A) are pairs of cocci, "tetrads" (C) are groups of four cocci, and "sarcinae" (D) are cube-like groups of eight cocci. Streptococci is the most appropriate term for describing the specific arrangement mentioned in the question.