G.R. is a 75-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with chest pain, palpitations, and appears pale and diaphoretic. As the history and physical are completed, the following problems emerge. Please label them first-, second-, or third-level priority problems. b. Serum potassium 2.7 mmol/L (low), Glucose 225 mg/dL (high)

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Vital Signs Assessment Chapter 7 Questions

Question 1 of 5

G.R. is a 75-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with chest pain, palpitations, and appears pale and diaphoretic. As the history and physical are completed, the following problems emerge. Please label them first-, second-, or third-level priority problems. b. Serum potassium 2.7 mmol/L (low), Glucose 225 mg/dL (high)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) First-level priority for both low serum potassium and high glucose levels. The rationale behind this is that low serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in a patient presenting with chest pain and palpitations like G.R. Therefore, correcting the potassium level is crucial to prevent potential cardiac complications. Similarly, high glucose levels can indicate uncontrolled diabetes or a stress response to G.R.'s condition, which can worsen cardiac function and delay healing. Managing hyperglycemia promptly is essential to improve outcomes and prevent further complications in a patient with cardiac symptoms. Choosing second- or third-level priorities for these problems would risk overlooking critical issues that could rapidly deteriorate the patient's condition. As an educator, it is vital to emphasize to students the importance of recognizing and prioritizing abnormalities in vital signs that can have immediate and severe consequences on a patient's health, especially in emergency situations. This case highlights the significance of swift intervention and prioritization based on the potential impact on patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

What is the Adson's test used for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Adson's test is used to detect thoracic outlet syndrome, making option A the correct answer. Thoracic outlet syndrome occurs when there is compression of the nerves or blood vessels as they pass through the thoracic outlet, leading to symptoms like pain, numbness, and tingling in the arm and hand. Option B, checking for adequate blood perfusion to the hand, is incorrect because the Adson's test specifically focuses on identifying thoracic outlet syndrome, not general blood perfusion issues. Option C, detecting anterior instability of the shoulder joint, is incorrect as this test is not designed to assess shoulder joint stability. Option D, detecting symptoms of CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome), is also incorrect as the Adson's test is not used to diagnose CTS. In an educational context, understanding the specific purposes of clinical tests like the Adson's test is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients. Knowing the indications and limitations of each test helps in providing appropriate care and ensuring patient safety. It is essential for healthcare providers to have a comprehensive understanding of various assessment techniques to deliver high-quality healthcare services.

Question 3 of 5

The glenohumeral joint (shoulder girdle complex) involves articulation of the humeral head with the glenoid fossa. Approximately what percentage of the humeral head articulates with the glenoid fossa?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 30%. In the glenohumeral joint, the humeral head articulates with the glenoid fossa, forming a ball-and-socket joint. The glenoid fossa is relatively shallow compared to the humeral head, so only about 30% of the humeral head's surface area makes contact with the glenoid fossa. This limited contact area allows for a wide range of motion at the shoulder joint while sacrificing some stability. Option A) 15% is incorrect because this would suggest a much smaller articulation surface, limiting the range of motion and stability of the joint. Option C) 50% is incorrect as this would imply a more stable joint with less mobility. Option D) 70% is also incorrect because this would result in a much more stable but less mobile joint than what is actually observed in the shoulder joint. Understanding the percentage of articulation between the humeral head and the glenoid fossa is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those involved in assessing and treating shoulder injuries. By knowing this anatomy, clinicians can better understand the mechanisms of injury, diagnose conditions, and develop appropriate treatment plans to help patients regain optimal function and mobility in the shoulder girdle complex.

Question 4 of 5

What physical exam finding will be observed in 'Saturday night palsy'?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In 'Saturday night palsy,' there is compression or injury to the radial nerve, resulting in weakness or paralysis of the wrist and finger extensor muscles. The correct answer, option A, "Marked wrist and finger drop," directly correlates with this characteristic presentation. This physical exam finding is a hallmark of radial nerve dysfunction. Option B, "Atrophy of abductor pollicis brevis (APB)," is associated with median nerve injury rather than radial nerve dysfunction seen in 'Saturday night palsy.' Option C, "Weak elbow extension," typically points to a different nerve involvement, such as the musculocutaneous nerve. Option D, "Painless weakness and atrophy of hand intrinsic muscle," does not align with the typical presentation of 'Saturday night palsy,' which is characterized by weakness in the wrist and finger extensors. Educationally, understanding specific physical exam findings associated with nerve injuries is crucial for accurate clinical assessments. Recognizing these patterns aids in localizing the nerve injury and determining appropriate management strategies. This knowledge is particularly important for healthcare professionals involved in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological conditions or injuries.

Question 5 of 5

The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of vital signs assessment, the correct answer is A) Data base. The data base refers to the comprehensive collection of information including the patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data (measurable, observable data like vital signs), and subjective data (information provided by the patient). This combined information forms the foundation for making clinical decisions and providing appropriate care. Option B) Admitting data specifically pertains to the information gathered when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility and may not encompass all the necessary data for a complete assessment. Option C) Financial statement is unrelated to the process of collecting and analyzing patient data for vital signs assessment. Option D) Discharge summary is a document prepared at the end of a patient's hospital stay to summarize the treatment provided and future care plans, but it does not encompass the entire range of data needed for vital signs assessment. Understanding the concept of a data base in healthcare is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately assess patients, make informed decisions, and provide optimal care. By recognizing and utilizing the data base effectively, healthcare providers can ensure the delivery of high-quality and personalized patient care.

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