From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?

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Microbiology Chapter 1 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.

Question 2 of 9

The central dogma concerning the flow of information from genetic material was first introduced by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The central dogma of molecular biology, which describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to proteins, was first proposed by Francis Crick. Crick, along with James Watson, discovered the structure of DNA in 1953, leading to the understanding of how genetic information is stored and transmitted. Ernst Ruska was a physicist who developed the electron microscope, not related to genetic information flow. Camillo Golgi was an Italian biologist known for the discovery of the Golgi apparatus, not central to the central dogma. Carl Bender is not a prominent figure in the field of molecular biology. In summary, Francis Crick is the correct answer as he played a pivotal role in introducing the central dogma of molecular biology.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent because it is a Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule, which matches the description provided. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis and can present with sore throat. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not pairs, and is not typically associated with sore throat. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and more commonly causes meningitis or septicemia, not sore throat. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod bacterium, not a Gram-positive cocci, and is not a common cause of sore throat.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following pathogenic factors is typical for the virulent strains of Listeria monocytogenes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulent strains of Listeria monocytogenes exhibit multiple pathogenic factors. A: They do not have endotoxin-like substances, so this is incorrect. B: They are indeed facultative intracellular bacteria, aiding in their ability to survive and replicate inside host cells. C: They produce hemolysin, which helps them lyse red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the above statements are true for virulent strains of Listeria monocytogenes.

Question 5 of 9

The capsule of the bacteria is composed of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the capsule of bacteria is mainly composed of polysaccharides or polypeptides. This outer layer helps bacteria evade the host's immune system and protects them from desiccation. Peptidoglycan (choice A) is a component of the bacterial cell wall, not the capsule. Flagellin (choice C) is a protein component of the bacterial flagella, not the capsule. Choice D is incorrect as the capsule is indeed composed of polysaccharides or polypeptides.

Question 6 of 9

In which of the following GIT infections, the pathogenesis consists mainly of invasion and intraepithelial multiplication without generalization of infectious process:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Shigella invades and multiplies within the intestinal epithelial cells, causing inflammation and tissue damage locally. 2. It does not spread systemically, unlike Yersinia enterocolitica and Listeria monocytogenes. 3. Shigella's pathogenesis is focused on invasion and multiplication at the site of infection, leading to symptoms of dysentery. 4. Yersinia enterocolitica and Listeria monocytogenes can disseminate beyond the gastrointestinal tract, causing systemic infections. Summary: - A (Yersinia enterocolitica) and B (Listeria monocytogenes) are incorrect as they can generalize the infectious process. - C (Shigella) is correct as it mainly involves invasion and intraepithelial multiplication without spreading systemically.

Question 7 of 9

Microscopical examination of discharges from the gums of a patient ill with paradontosis revealed some protozoan pear-shaped organisms 6-13 micrometer long. The parasite has one nucleus and undulating membrane, there are four flagella at the front of its body. What protozoan were found?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonads. Trichomonads are pear-shaped protozoa, typically 6-13 micrometers long, with one nucleus, undulating membrane, and four flagella at the front. These characteristics match the description provided in the question. Trichomonads are commonly found in oral cavities and can cause gum infections like periodontosis. Summary: - B: Leishmania - Leishmania is a flagellated protozoan responsible for Leishmaniasis, not typically found in the oral cavity. - C: Amoebae - Amoebae are not pear-shaped and do not have the specific characteristics described in the question. - D: Balantidia - Balantidia are ciliated protozoa, not flagellated like trichomonads, and are not typically associated with gum infections.

Question 8 of 9

The mumps virus belongs to family:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.

Question 9 of 9

In which of the following diseases is bacteremia observed:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever, Brucellosis. Both Typhoid fever and Brucellosis are bacterial infections that can lead to bacteremia, the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. In Typhoid fever, the causative agent Salmonella typhi can enter the bloodstream, causing bacteremia. Similarly, Brucellosis, caused by Brucella species, can also result in bacteremia. Choice A is incorrect because bacteremia is not typically observed in Diphtheria. Choice C, Cholera, is caused by a toxin-producing bacterium and does not usually lead to bacteremia. Choice D, Dysentery, is a condition characterized by bloody diarrhea and is primarily caused by parasites or bacteria that typically do not lead to bacteremia.

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