ATI RN
Theoretical Basis for Behavior Modification Questions
Question 1 of 5
Freud explains anxiety as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Freud explains anxiety as a conflict between id (unconscious desires) and superego (internalized societal norms). This conflict creates tension, leading to anxiety. The id seeks immediate gratification, while the superego imposes moral standards. This conflict causes anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because it oversimplifies anxiety as solely related to satisfying needs. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on a physiological response rather than a psychological conflict. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests anxiety is a learned response to stressors, rather than a result of internal conflicts within the mind.
Question 2 of 5
A client is admitted with needle tracks on his arm, stuporous and with pin point pupil will likely be managed with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Narcan (Naloxone). This medication is an opioid antagonist used for acute opioid overdose reversal. The client's symptoms of stupor, pinpoint pupils, and needle tracks suggest opioid use, making Narcan the appropriate choice to reverse the opioid effects quickly. Naltrexone (A) is used for opioid dependence treatment, not acute overdose. Disulfiram (C) is for alcohol aversion therapy, not opioid overdose. Methadone (D) is a long-acting opioid used for opioid addiction treatment, not for acute overdose reversal. Therefore, Narcan is the optimal choice in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
The characteristic manifestation that will differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa is that bulimic individuals:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have episodic binge eating and purging. This is because individuals with bulimia nervosa engage in recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging, which is not typically seen in anorexia nervosa. B is incorrect as weight stabilization is not a distinguishing feature. C is incorrect as peculiar food handling patterns are not unique to bulimia nervosa. D is incorrect as threatened self-esteem is a common feature in both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.
Question 4 of 5
Nikki reveals that the boyfriend has been pressuring her to engage in premarital sex. The most therapeutic response by the nurse is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it focuses on exploring Nikki's feelings and understanding her perspective on the situation. By asking how she feels, the nurse encourages open communication and helps Nikki reflect on her emotions. Option A dismisses her feelings, B is judgmental, and C is irrelevant to the issue at hand. Option D is therapeutic as it promotes self-awareness and empowers Nikki to make informed decisions regarding her relationship.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is evaluating therapy with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following would indicate that the therapy was successful?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows empowerment and independence for the client, which are key goals in therapy for anorexia nervosa. Reinforcing increased decision-making by the client indicates progress towards autonomy and self-efficacy. This is important for long-term recovery. Choice B is incorrect as clear verbalization of expectations by parents may not necessarily indicate successful therapy. It could potentially lead to increased pressure and anxiety for the client. Choice C is incorrect as verbalizing enjoyment of family meals may not necessarily indicate successful therapy. It could be a temporary response or avoidance of conflict. Choice D is incorrect as sharing feelings of low self-esteem with parents may indicate trust and communication but does not necessarily represent successful therapy outcomes for anorexia nervosa.