ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheterfor a male patient. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cleansing the meatus with circular strokes starting at the meatus and moving outward helps prevent the introduction of bacteria into the urethra. This technique minimizes the risk of urinary tract infections. Holding the shaft at a 60-degree angle (A) or with the dominant hand (B) is not necessary for catheter insertion. Cleansing the meatus 3 times with the same cotton ball (C) can introduce more bacteria and is not recommended.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with glaucoma how to administer eye drops to achieve maximum absorption. The nurse should teach the patient to perform what action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because instilling the medication in the conjunctival sac allows for direct absorption into the eye tissues. This method ensures that the medication reaches the target area for treating glaucoma effectively. Maintaining a supine position (choice B) or keeping the eyes closed (choice C) after administration does not enhance absorption and may lead to wasted medication. Applying the medication to the sclera (choice D) is incorrect as it does not target the specific area needed for treating glaucoma.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Not until the drain is removed. After a mastectomy with immediate reconstruction, there is typically a drain in place to collect fluid. Showering before the drain is removed can increase the risk of infection and disrupt the healing process. It is important to wait until the healthcare provider removes the drain to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Summary: B: On the second postoperative day - Too early, the drain needs to be removed first. C: Now, if you wash gently with soap and water - Incorrect, the drain should be removed before showering. D: Seven days after your surgery - Incorrect, waiting for a specific number of days is not necessary, it depends on when the drain is removed.
Question 5 of 9
A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient has a history of hypertension. Hypertension is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction as it can lead to reduced blood flow to the penis, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. High blood pressure can damage blood vessels and affect the circulation necessary for an erection. Other choices are less likely to directly contribute to erectile dysfunction. A: UTI treatment is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction. C: Age alone is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction, although it can increase the risk. D: While a sedentary lifestyle can impact overall health, it is less likely to directly cause erectile dysfunction compared to hypertension.
Question 6 of 9
A 23-year-old woman comes to the free clinic stating I think I have a lump in my breast. Do I have cancer? The nurse instructs the patient that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mammography. Mammography is the gold standard for diagnosing breast cancer as it can detect abnormalities such as lumps or tumors in the breast tissue. It provides detailed images that can help healthcare providers identify suspicious areas that may require further testing or biopsy. Supervised breast self-examination (choice A) is important for early detection but is not a diagnostic tool. Fine-needle aspiration (choice C) is a procedure used to obtain a sample of cells for further analysis but is not definitive for diagnosing breast cancer. Chest x-ray (choice D) is used to evaluate the lungs and heart, not the breast tissue for cancer.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with Parkinsons disease is undergoing a swallowing assessment because she has recently developed adventitious lung sounds. The patients nutritional needs should be met by what method?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Semisolid food with thick liquids. Patients with Parkinson's disease often have dysphagia, leading to aspiration and respiratory complications. Semisolid food with thick liquids helps prevent aspiration and promotes safer swallowing. TPN (A) is not necessary for meeting nutritional needs unless the patient cannot tolerate oral intake. A low-residue diet (B) may not address the specific swallowing issues in Parkinson's disease. Minced foods and fluid restriction (D) may not provide adequate nutrition and hydration.
Question 8 of 9
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blowing up balloons. Blowing up balloons involves the activation of the facial muscles, which helps prevent muscle atrophy in patients with Bell's palsy. This exercise promotes muscle strength and prevents weakness. Deliberately frowning (B), smiling repeatedly (C), and whistling (D) do not specifically target the facial muscles involved in Bell's palsy and may not be as effective in preventing muscle atrophy.
Question 9 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the nurse is using criticalthinking standards when communicating with patients? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uses humility. Critical thinking in nursing involves being open-minded, self-aware, and willing to consider different perspectives. Humility allows nurses to acknowledge their limitations, seek feedback, and continuously learn and improve. Instilling faith (A) may be important but does not directly relate to critical thinking standards. Self-confidence (C) can be beneficial, but excessive confidence can lead to closed-mindedness. Supportiveness (D) is valuable in patient care but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking standards. In summary, humility enables nurses to approach patient communication with an open and reflective mindset, essential for applying critical thinking standards effectively.