ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 2 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 3 of 9
A 66-year-old patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the patients liver and bones. For the past several hours, the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. Dyspnea in a patient with lung cancer can be caused by hypoxia due to compromised lung function. High-flow oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea. Administering a bolus of normal saline (A) would not directly address the underlying cause of dyspnea. Administering high doses of opioids (C) may lead to respiratory depression and should be used cautiously in patients experiencing dyspnea. Administering bronchodilators and corticosteroids (D) may be appropriate for certain types of dyspnea, but in this case, addressing hypoxia with high-flow oxygen therapy is the most appropriate initial nursing action.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is using therapeutic communication witha patient. Which technique will the nurse use to ensure effective communication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because therapeutic communication focuses on building a trusting relationship and understanding the patient's feelings and needs. By changing negative self-talk to positive self-talk, the nurse can help the patient develop a more positive outlook and improve self-esteem. This technique promotes effective communication by creating a supportive and non-judgmental environment. Option B is incorrect because small group communication is not the primary focus of therapeutic communication. Option C is incorrect as electronic communication lacks the personal interaction needed for therapeutic communication. Option D is incorrect because intrapersonal communication involves self-reflection and is not directly related to building strong teams in the context of patient care.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with multiple food and environmental allergies tells the nurse that he is frustrated and angry about having to be so watchful all the time and wonders if it is really worth it. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows empathy and offers the patient an opportunity to express their feelings. By acknowledging the patient's frustration and anger, the nurse validates their emotions and creates a safe space for communication. This response promotes trust and understanding, which are crucial in building a therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect because it immediately jumps to teaching coping strategies without addressing the patient's emotional state. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes the patient's feelings without directly engaging with their specific concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it sounds dismissive and may make the patient feel judged or misunderstood. These responses lack the empathetic approach needed to effectively support the patient in this situation.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acyclovir (Zovirax). Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes infections, including genital herpes. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby suppressing symptoms and shortening the course of the infection. Clotrimazole (A) is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, not effective against viral infections like herpes. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not effective against viruses. Podophyllin (C) is a topical treatment for genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), not effective for herpes. Therefore, the correct choice is Acyclovir (D) for treating genital herpes exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired verbal communication. In ALS, motor neurons deteriorate leading to muscle weakness and atrophy, including those involved in speech production. This results in impaired verbal communication. Chronic confusion (A) is not a common manifestation of ALS. Impaired urinary elimination (B) and bowel incontinence (D) are not typically associated with ALS, as it primarily affects motor neurons, not autonomic functions.
Question 9 of 9
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blowing up balloons. Blowing up balloons involves the activation of the facial muscles, which helps prevent muscle atrophy in patients with Bell's palsy. This exercise promotes muscle strength and prevents weakness. Deliberately frowning (B), smiling repeatedly (C), and whistling (D) do not specifically target the facial muscles involved in Bell's palsy and may not be as effective in preventing muscle atrophy.