ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 4
Frank is a 24-year-old man who presents with multiple burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of multiple burning erosions on the shaft of the penis along with tender inguinal adenopathy is indicative of genital herpes caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). Primary herpes simplex infection typically presents with painful ulcers and lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are often shallow with well-defined borders and can be associated with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. In contrast, primary syphilis is characterized by a painless chancre at the site of infection, usually on the genitals. Chancroid can also present with painful ulcers, but it is less common in developed countries. Gonorrhea typically presents with urethral discharge, dysuria, or other symptoms of urethritis, rather than erosions on the penis shaft.
Question 2 of 4
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.
Question 3 of 4
A 19-year-old college sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of joint pains. The student has been back from spring break for 2 weeks; during her holiday, she went camping. She notes that she had a red spot, shaped like a target, but then it started spreading, and then the joint pains started. She used insect repellant but was in an area known to have ticks. She has never been sick and takes no medications routinely; she has never been sexually active. What is the most likely cause of her joint pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the 19-year-old college sophomore's joint pain is Lyme disease. The presentation of a red spot shaped like a target (erythema migrans) that spreads, along with joint pain, is classic for Lyme disease. Additionally, the history of camping in an area known to have ticks and the history of using insect repellent support the likelihood of a tick-borne illness like Lyme disease.
Question 4 of 4
Marion presents to your office with back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marion's presentation of back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention is concerning for cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome is a rare but serious condition caused by the compression of the bundle of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord, known as the cauda equina. This compression can result in a variety of symptoms, including back pain, sciatica, changes in bowel and bladder function (such as constipation and urinary retention), as well as lower extremity weakness or numbness.