For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended?

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundations of nursing practice questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Women over age 40. Annual clinical breast examinations are recommended for this population group because they have an increased risk of developing breast cancer compared to younger age groups. Regular screenings starting at age 40 can help in early detection and improve survival rates. A: Women over age 21 - This age group is generally recommended to start clinical breast examinations every 1-3 years, not necessarily annually. B: Women over age 25 - While it's important to be vigilant about breast health, the risk of breast cancer increases with age, making annual exams more crucial for older women. D: All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer - While family history is a risk factor, the recommendation for annual clinical breast examinations typically begins at age 40, regardless of family history.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is using different toileting schedules.Which principles will the nurse keep in mind when planning care? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because habit training involves keeping a bladder diary to identify patterns and develop a toileting schedule. This helps in promoting regular voiding habits. B is incorrect because timed voiding isn't solely based on the patient's urge to void, but rather on a predetermined schedule. C is incorrect as prompted voiding involves reminding patients to use the restroom at regular intervals, not just asking if they are wet or dry. D is incorrect because elevating feet in patients with edema may help reduce swelling but has no direct impact on nighttime voiding.

Question 3 of 9

Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.

Question 4 of 9

A hearing-impaired patient is scheduled to have an MRI. What would be important for the nurse to remember when caring for this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hearing-impaired patient is likely unable to hear during an MRI due to loud noises. 2. Nurse needs to use alternative communication methods like writing or gestures. 3. Sign language interpreter may not be necessary for an MRI. 4. Lip reading may be challenging due to the noisy MRI environment. 5. Interaction should be adapted to accommodate the patient's communication needs.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is performing an assessment on a patientwho has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. The nurse will expect which other assessment finding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoactive bowel sounds. When a patient has not had a bowel movement in 3 days, it indicates constipation. Constipation can lead to decreased peristalsis, resulting in hypoactive bowel sounds. Increased fluid intake (B) would be a potential intervention, not an expected assessment finding. A soft tender abdomen (C) may indicate other issues like inflammation or infection, not directly related to constipation. Jaundice in the sclera (D) is indicative of liver dysfunction, not a typical finding associated with constipation.

Question 6 of 9

The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.

Question 7 of 9

A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple- lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution. The first lumen inflates the balloon to secure the catheter in place. The second lumen allows continuous inflow of irrigation solution to prevent clot formation. The third lumen allows continuous outflow to ensure the bladder is continuously irrigated. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the functions of the three lumens in a transurethral resection of the prostate procedure.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is auditing and monitoring patients’ health records. Which action is the nurse taking?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The nurse is auditing and monitoring patients' health records, indicating a review process. Step 2: By reviewing patients' health records, the nurse is determining the degree to which standards of care are met. Step 3: This action aligns with auditing, which involves assessing if care meets established standards. Step 4: The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly involve auditing or monitoring for compliance with standards of care. Choice B talks about undocumented care, C about reimbursement, and D about treatment outcomes comparison.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days