ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
For which condition might blood be drawn to check uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: gout. Uric acid levels are typically checked for gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. This condition directly relates to uric acid levels in the blood. Asthma (choice A), diverticulitis (choice C), and meningitis (choice D) do not typically require checking uric acid levels. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis is a gastrointestinal condition, and meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic kidney disease (CKD). Patients with diabetes and hypertension are at increased risk for developing CKD due to the damaging effects of high blood sugar and elevated blood pressure on the kidneys. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of kidney dysfunction such as proteinuria, elevated creatinine levels, and decreased glomerular filtration rate. B: Chronic pain is not directly related to the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension. While the patient may experience pain as a result of complications from these conditions, it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. C: Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common complication associated with diabetes and hypertension. These conditions typically lead to high blood pressure rather than low blood pressure. D: Sepsis is a serious infection that can occur in any patient, but it is not a direct complication specifically related to diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring for sepsis would be important in a broader context but is not
Question 3 of 9
Which assessment finding indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.
Question 4 of 9
Which value should a nurse monitor closely when a client is on TPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucose. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a form of nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream, providing all essential nutrients including glucose. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium (A), Magnesium (B), and Cholesterol (D) are not typically monitored closely when a client is on TPN, as they are not directly impacted by TPN administration. Calcium and Magnesium levels are usually monitored for other conditions, and Cholesterol levels are not typically affected by TPN administration.
Question 5 of 9
Which medication should be given to treat anemia in clients with renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Iron, folic acid, and B12) Rationale: 1. Iron: Renal failure patients often have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production. 2. Folic acid and B12: Important for red blood cell production and maturation. 3. Corrects underlying causes of anemia in renal failure patients. Summary: B: Increasing protein doesn't directly address anemia in renal failure. C: Vitamin D and calcium are not primary treatments for anemia in renal failure. D: Calcium and folic acid alone do not address the specific deficiencies seen in renal failure anemia.
Question 6 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client develops severe shortness of breath after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. This is the priority intervention to address severe shortness of breath, ensuring the client receives adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen saturation levels and supports respiratory function. Encouraging deep breathing (B) may exacerbate the client's distress. Elevating the head of the bed (C) can help improve breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. Administering antibiotics (D) is not indicated for shortness of breath unless there is an underlying infection causing it.
Question 7 of 9
Which electrolyte is lost with intestinal suctioning in a client with an ileus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: sodium chloride. Intestinal suctioning in a client with an ileus leads to loss of fluids rich in sodium chloride. This loss can result in electrolyte imbalances and dehydration. Calcium (A), magnesium (B), and potassium (C) are not typically lost in significant amounts through intestinal suctioning in the context of an ileus. Therefore, sodium chloride is the most likely electrolyte to be lost in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with heart failure about managing their condition. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I can stop taking my medication if I feel fine." This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the importance of medication adherence in managing heart failure. Here's the rationale: 1. Patients with heart failure often require lifelong medication to control symptoms and prevent complications. 2. Stopping medication abruptly can lead to worsening of heart failure symptoms and potential health risks. 3. Monitoring for symptoms is essential, but it does not replace the need for consistent medication use. Other choices are incorrect because: A is correct as daily medication adherence is crucial. B is correct as reducing sodium intake helps manage fluid retention in heart failure. D is correct as daily weight monitoring helps detect fluid retention early.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to support kidney function and prevent further damage. IV fluids help improve renal perfusion and promote urine output. Hemodialysis may be necessary in severe cases but initial intervention is fluid resuscitation. Administering pain relief or morphine is not the priority in acute renal failure as addressing hydration status takes precedence over pain management.