ATI RN
FHEA Drugs That Affect the Cardiovascular System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
For therapeutic application local anesthetics are usually made available as salts for the reasons of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because local anesthetics are usually made available as salts due to their greater water solubility and stability. Water-soluble salts are easier to dissolve and distribute in the body, enhancing their effectiveness. Additionally, the stability of salts ensures a longer shelf life and reduces the risk of degradation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because local anesthetics as salts do not necessarily lead to less toxicity, higher stability, greater lipid solubility, less local tissue damage, or more potency.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following agents is a short-acting ganglion blocker?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trimethaphane. Trimethaphane is a short-acting ganglion blocker because it acts quickly to block ganglionic transmission, leading to a rapid onset of action. Homatropine is a muscarinic antagonist used for its anticholinergic effects, not as a ganglion blocker. Hexamethonium is a ganglion blocker, but it is long-acting, not short-acting. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocker used for skeletal muscle paralysis, not for ganglionic blockade. Therefore, the correct choice is Trimethaphane due to its fast-acting nature in blocking ganglionic transmission.
Question 3 of 5
Indicate the drug, which is a direct-acting both alfa- and beta-receptor agonist:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norepinephrine. Norepinephrine is a direct-acting alpha-1 and beta-1 receptor agonist. It stimulates both alpha and beta receptors directly, leading to vasoconstriction (via alpha-1) and increased heart rate and contractility (via beta-1). Methoxamine (B) is a selective alpha-1 agonist, Isoproterenol (C) is a non-selective beta agonist, and Ephedrine (D) is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic drug with indirect effects. Therefore, norepinephrine is the only choice that directly acts on both alpha and beta receptors.
Question 4 of 5
The main reason for using alfa-receptor antagonists in the management of pheochromocytoma is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alpha-receptor antagonists block alpha2 receptors on vascular smooth muscle, preventing vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine and reducing blood pressure in patients with pheochromocytoma. This helps manage symptoms of hypertension and tachycardia associated with excessive catecholamine release. Incorrect choices: A: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not inhibit the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla. C: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not interact with or inhibit beta2 adrenoreceptors. D: Alpha-receptor antagonists do not antagonize the release of renin.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following hypnotics is preferred for elderly patients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Temazepam. Temazepam is preferred for elderly patients due to its shorter half-life, reduced risk of accumulation, and lower potential for drug interactions compared to other options. Phenobarbital (A) and Secobarbital (D) have long half-lives, leading to increased risk of side effects and drug interactions in the elderly. Flurazepam (B) has a long half-life and can cause residual sedation, increasing the risk of falls and cognitive impairment in the elderly.