For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B, Infectious mononucleosis, is not caused by enteroviruses. Infectious mononucleosis is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a member of the herpesvirus family, not by enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are known to cause diseases such as myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema. Therefore, B is the correct answer. Myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema can all be caused by enteroviruses, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. This bacterium produces Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the ribosomes. Shigella dysenteriae is known to cause severe gastrointestinal infections. Choice B: Escherichia coli typically does not produce toxins that inhibit protein synthesis. E. coli strains may produce toxins that cause diarrhea. Choice C: Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin, which affects the nervous system but does not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D: Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxins and exotoxins but these toxins do not directly inhibit protein synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: presence of metachromatic granules. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is known for containing metachromatic granules, which are characteristic of this species. These granules can be observed under a microscope and aid in the identification of the bacteria. Explanation of other choices: A: formation of spores - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not form spores. Spore formation is more commonly seen in bacteria such as Bacillus and Clostridium species. C: production of coagulase - Coagulase production is a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus, not Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D: beta-hemolysis on blood agar - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not exhibit beta-hemolysis on blood agar. This type of hemolysis is more typical of Streptococcus pyogenes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pertussis toxin. This toxin is the most important virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis because it plays a key role in causing the characteristic symptoms of whooping cough. Pertussis toxin interferes with the host's immune response, leading to inflammation and tissue damage in the respiratory tract. The other choices (A: the flagellum, C: P fimbriae, D: mannose-resistant adhesins) are important for bacterial attachment and colonization, but they do not directly contribute to the severity of the disease like pertussis toxin does.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water due to its ability to survive and multiply in water sources. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, a severe gastrointestinal infection transmitted through contaminated food and water. Clostridium difficile, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not typically associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water. Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections linked to antibiotic use, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis through respiratory transmission, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicate a Streptococcus species. Step 2: The presence of a capsule suggests S. pneumoniae specifically. Summary: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci but does not typically present in pairs with a capsule. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci.