ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
For prevention of tuberculosis is used
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BCG. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used for the prevention of tuberculosis. BCG is a live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis that helps the immune system recognize and fight off tuberculosis bacteria. Specific anti-tuberculosis serum (A) is not used for prevention but for treatment. DTP (C) stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine, not specific for tuberculosis prevention. PPD (D) is a tuberculin skin test used for diagnosis, not prevention. Thus, BCG is the correct choice for tuberculosis prevention.
Question 2 of 9
The most important virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis is crucial for its virulence as it helps the bacteria evade the host immune system by inhibiting phagocytosis. This allows the bacteria to survive and multiply in the host, leading to invasive infections. Exotoxins, beta-lactamase, and pyrogenic toxins are not the main virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis and do not play as significant a role in its pathogenicity as the polysaccharide capsule.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent based on the description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. S. pneumoniae is known for its characteristic morphology and the presence of a capsule, which helps in evading the immune system. It commonly causes pneumonia, especially in patients with a productive cough and fever. Incorrect choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae typically presents with a mucoid capsule and is associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is more commonly associated with meningitis and septicemia. D: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present in pairs with a capsule and is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections.
Question 4 of 9
For prevention of tuberculosis is used
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BCG. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used for the prevention of tuberculosis. BCG is a live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis that helps the immune system recognize and fight off tuberculosis bacteria. Specific anti-tuberculosis serum (A) is not used for prevention but for treatment. DTP (C) stands for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine, not specific for tuberculosis prevention. PPD (D) is a tuberculin skin test used for diagnosis, not prevention. Thus, BCG is the correct choice for tuberculosis prevention.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 6 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.
Question 7 of 9
A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypersensitivity of delayed type. The symptoms described occur 5-10 days after exposure to the antigen, consistent with a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves T cells and is characterized by cell-mediated immune response, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms of allergic reactions. Immunocomplex reactions (choice A) involve antigen-antibody complexes depositing in tissues, immediate hypersensitivity reactions (choice B) involve IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, and cytotoxic reactions (choice C) involve antibodies targeting specific cells for destruction.
Question 8 of 9
How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.
Question 9 of 9
A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.