For destruction of spore forms of microorganisms is used:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: autoclaving. Autoclaving is a process that uses high pressure and steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water, typically around 121-134°C. This high heat and pressure are effective in destroying spore forms of microorganisms, which are highly resistant structures that can withstand boiling temperatures. Autoclaving ensures the complete destruction of spores, making it an effective method for sterilization. Rationale: A: Pasteurization uses lower heat compared to autoclaving and is not sufficient to destroy spore forms. C: Freezing does not effectively destroy spore forms, as most microorganisms can survive freezing temperatures. D: Boiling, while effective for many microorganisms, may not be sufficient to destroy spore forms due to their high resistance, unlike autoclaving.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is known to cause gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection. Neisseria gonorrhoeae specifically infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract in both men and women. It is transmitted through sexual contact. Explanation of other choices: A: Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that causes chlamydia, not gonorrhea. C: Mycoplasma genitalium is associated with non-gonococcal urethritis, not gonorrhea. D: Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis, not gonorrhea. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer based on its direct association with causing gonorrhea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gram-negative coccobacillus. Francisella tularensis is a Gram-negative coccobacillus because it has a unique shape that is between a coccus (spherical) and a bacillus (rod-shaped) and it stains pink/red in the Gram staining process. It is important to note that it is not a coccus (choice B) or a Gram-positive bacterium (choice A). Choice C is too general and does not specify the coccobacillus shape of F. tularensis. So, the correct answer is D due to its specific characteristics as a Gram-negative coccobacillus.