For destruction of spore forms of microorganisms is used:

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medical microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

For destruction of spore forms of microorganisms is used:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: autoclaving. Autoclaving is a process that uses high pressure and steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water, typically around 121-134°C. This high heat and pressure are effective in destroying spore forms of microorganisms, which are highly resistant structures that can withstand boiling temperatures. Autoclaving ensures the complete destruction of spores, making it an effective method for sterilization. Rationale: A: Pasteurization uses lower heat compared to autoclaving and is not sufficient to destroy spore forms. C: Freezing does not effectively destroy spore forms, as most microorganisms can survive freezing temperatures. D: Boiling, while effective for many microorganisms, may not be sufficient to destroy spore forms due to their high resistance, unlike autoclaving.

Question 2 of 9

Which IS NOT true about sexually transmitted infections?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Define sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as infections primarily spread through sexual contact. Step 2: Understand that STIs can also be transmitted through non-sexual means like blood transfusions. Step 3: Recognize that choice C is incorrect as it limits STIs to only sexually transmitted infections. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is C as it does not encompass all possible modes of transmission for STIs. Summary: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they all accurately describe the characteristics of sexually transmitted infections, while choice C is incorrect as it excludes other potential modes of transmission for STIs.

Question 3 of 9

A man is being treated for chronic pneumonia for a long time. Microscopy of sputum smears stained using Ziehl-Nielsen method reveals red bacilli 0.25x4 microns in size, located separately or sometimes in small clusters. What disease can be suspected?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pulmonary tuberculosis. The presence of red bacilli stained with Ziehl-Nielsen method indicates acid-fast bacteria, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis. The size and appearance of the bacilli described match those of M. tuberculosis. Chronic pneumonia, along with the specific staining pattern, strongly suggests tuberculosis as the likely diagnosis. Explanation for other choices: A: Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which would not show red bacilli on Ziehl-Nielsen staining. B: Pulmonary actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces species, not acid-fast bacteria like M. tuberculosis. C: Pulmonary candidiasis is caused by Candida species, which are fungi and do not appear as red bacilli on staining.

Question 4 of 9

Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness, pain in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient, who had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following protozoon:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is known to cause amoebic dysentery, presenting symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain, and indigestion. The presence of microbial cysts with four nuclei in fecal samples is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. These cysts are the infective form of the parasite and can cause severe invasive disease in the intestines. Incorrect choices: B: Entamoeba coli does not typically cause invasive disease or severe symptoms like those described in the question. C: Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan that causes balantidiasis, which presents differently from the symptoms described in the question. D: Trichomonad is a flagellated protozoan that typically infects the urogenital tract, not the intestine, and does not form cysts with four nuclei. In summary, the key clues in the question were the symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain,

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following bacterial species is known for its spore-forming ability?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is known for its spore-forming ability, which is a survival mechanism to withstand harsh conditions. Spore formation allows the bacteria to become dormant and resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation. Escherichia coli (A) is not known for spore formation. Staphylococcus aureus (B) does not form spores either. Listeria monocytogenes (D) is a pathogenic bacterium but does not typically form spores.

Question 6 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as tetanus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus due to its production of tetanospasmin toxin. This neurotoxin leads to muscle stiffness and spasms characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens is associated with gas gangrene, not tetanus. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections, not tetanus. Escherichia coli is a common gut bacteria and is not responsible for tetanus. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer for causing tetanus.

Question 7 of 9

A laboratory received a material from a patient's wound. Preliminary diagnosis is gaseous gangrene. What microbiological method should be applied to determine species of causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacteriological. This method involves isolating and culturing the causative bacteria from the wound material to determine the species. This allows for further testing to confirm gaseous gangrene and identify the specific pathogen. Choice B: Allergic is incorrect as it pertains to immune responses, not identifying bacteria. Choice C: Bacterioscopic is incorrect as it refers to microscopic examination of bacteria, not species identification. Choice D: Serological is incorrect as it involves testing for antibodies in the blood, not identifying the causative agent directly.

Question 8 of 9

The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens of ×10 and an objective lens of ×40 is ×__________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the total magnification, we multiply the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens. In this case, 10 (ocular) x 40 (objective) = 400. This is why choice C (400) is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the correct calculation of total magnification based on the given magnification powers of the ocular and objective lenses.

Question 9 of 9

Legionellosis has the following clinical forms:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Legionellosis is caused by the Legionella bacteria. Step 2: Legionellosis has two main clinical forms - Legionnaires disease and Pontiac fever. Step 3: Legionnaires disease presents with severe pneumonia symptoms, while Pontiac fever is a milder flu-like illness. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Legionnaires disease and Pontiac fever. Summary: - Choice B (Skin and intestinal form) is incorrect as Legionellosis primarily affects the lungs. - Choice C (Lymphatic, lung, and intestinal forms) is incorrect as it does not accurately represent the clinical forms of Legionellosis. - Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Legionellosis does have specific clinical forms.

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