ATI RN
Drug and Dosage for ET Tube Cardiovascular Pharmacological Agents Questions
Question 1 of 5
For client and family teaching, the nurse will rely on information that Alzheimer’s disease is currently best explained as being related to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetylcholine deficiency. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by a progressive loss of acetylcholine-producing neurons. Acetylcholine is crucial for memory, learning, and cognitive functions. A) GABA and B) Dopamine excess are not associated with Alzheimer's. C) Serotonin deficiency is not a primary factor in Alzheimer's pathology. Acetylcholine deficiency best explains the cognitive decline in Alzheimer's patients.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP levels in cardiac myocytes. Step 2: Increased cAMP levels lead to enhanced calcium influx into cardiac cells, increasing contractility. Step 3: Increased force of cardiac contractions (Choice C) is the direct result of enhanced contractility due to increased cAMP levels. Summary: Choice C is correct since milrinone's mechanism of action directly leads to increased force of cardiac contractions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with milrinone's mechanism of action and its inotropic effect.
Question 3 of 5
A patient on diuretic therapy calls the clinic because he’s had the flu, with “terrible vomiting and diarrhea,” and he has not kept anything down for 2 days. He feels weak and extremely tired. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, and extreme tiredness indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can be dangerous. The nurse should advise the patient to come into the clinic for evaluation to assess his condition, rehydrate him, and check for any complications. This is crucial as the patient may need intravenous fluids and electrolyte replacement therapy. Choice A is incorrect because taking the diuretic with sips of water may not be sufficient to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalance caused by the flu. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the diuretic abruptly can lead to further electrolyte imbalances and complications. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the dosage of the diuretic without evaluating the patient's condition could worsen the electrolyte imbalance and dehydration.
Question 4 of 5
What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration. Bioavailability refers to the percentage of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form. This definition excludes options A, B, and D as they do not directly relate to the concept of bioavailability. Plasma protein binding (A) refers to the extent to which a drug binds to proteins in the blood, brain-blood barrier permeability (B) is related to drug penetration into the brain, and the amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose (D) is more related to drug excretion rather than bioavailability. Thus, option C is correct as it specifically describes the concept of bioavailability.
Question 5 of 5
Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion channels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the substances listed interact with ion channels. Sodium channel blockers inhibit sodium influx, calcium channel blockers block calcium entry, and potassium channel activators enhance potassium efflux. A and B specifically target ion channels, while C indirectly influences ion channels through potassium activation. Therefore, all choices align with ion channel interactions.