For a patient with Crohn disease, the medical-surgical nurse recommends a diet that is

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Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

For a patient with Crohn disease, the medical-surgical nurse recommends a diet that is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a patient with Crohn's disease, the medical-surgical nurse recommends a diet that is low in fiber, and high in protein and calories (option D). This recommendation is based on the fact that Crohn's disease often leads to inflammation and damage in the gastrointestinal tract, which can make it difficult for the body to digest and absorb nutrients. A low-fiber diet helps to reduce the workload on the digestive system, while high protein and calorie intake supports the body's healing and energy needs. Option A, high in fiber and low in protein and calories, is incorrect because high fiber can exacerbate symptoms and protein/calorie intake is important for healing. Option B, high in potassium, is not specifically indicated for Crohn's disease. Option C, low in potassium, is not a typical recommendation for Crohn's disease unless there are specific individual circumstances. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind dietary recommendations for Crohn's disease is crucial for nurses caring for these patients. It is important to consider the pathophysiology of the disease and how different nutrients can impact symptom management and overall health. By choosing the correct diet, nurses can help promote better outcomes and improved quality of life for patients with Crohn's disease.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse knows that the most likely cause of the HSV-1 infection in a client with HIV infection is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of the Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam, the correct answer to the question regarding the most likely cause of HSV-1 infection in a client with HIV infection being immunosuppression (option A) is rooted in understanding the pathophysiology of these conditions. Individuals with HIV have compromised immune systems due to the virus attacking CD4 cells, weakening the body's ability to fight infections. HSV-1, the virus responsible for oral herpes, can become reactivated in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV. This reactivation is more likely to occur in individuals with HIV due to their immunosuppressed state. Options B, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario. Emotional stress (option B) may exacerbate HSV-1 outbreaks but is not the primary cause. Unprotected sexual activities (option C) can lead to the transmission of HSV-1 but are not the most likely cause in a client with HIV. Contact with saliva (option D) is a mode of transmission for HSV-1 but does not address the increased risk in individuals with HIV due to immunosuppression. Understanding the relationship between HIV, immunosuppression, and increased susceptibility to infections such as HSV-1 is crucial in providing holistic care to clients with these conditions. This knowledge empowers nurses to anticipate and address potential complications, provide appropriate education, and implement preventive measures to optimize the health outcomes of their clients.

Question 3 of 5

During seizure activity which observation is the priority to enhance further direction of treatment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of a seizure, the priority observation to enhance further direction of treatment is to note the time from beginning to end (Option B). This is crucial because it helps in determining the duration of the seizure activity, which can guide the healthcare provider in making decisions about the need for intervention, such as administering medications to stop prolonged seizures (status epilepticus). Observing the sequence or types of movement (Option A) can provide information about the specific type of seizure, but this does not necessarily dictate immediate treatment decisions. Identifying the pattern of breathing (Option C) is important in assessing oxygenation but may not be the most immediate concern during an active seizure. Determining if loss of bowel or bladder control occurs (Option D) is significant for documenting the seizure episode but does not directly impact the immediate management of the seizure. In an educational context, understanding the priority assessments during a seizure is essential for nurses and healthcare providers to provide timely and appropriate care to patients experiencing seizures. By prioritizing the observation of the time duration of a seizure, healthcare providers can ensure prompt and effective interventions, ultimately improving patient outcomes and safety during seizure events.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse has been assigned to these clients in the emergency room. Which client would the nurse go check first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the given scenario, the nurse should prioritize checking the client with tension pneumothorax and slight tracheal deviation to the right (Option C). Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse and pushing the mediastinum and trachea away from the affected side. This can lead to compromised cardiac output and airway obstruction, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Option A, viral pneumonia with atelectasis, while significant, does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway or circulation. Option B, spontaneous pneumothorax with a high respiratory rate, is concerning but not as critical as tension pneumothorax. Option D, acute asthma with bronchospasm, is a common condition that can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is generally not as immediately life-threatening as tension pneumothorax. In a medical-surgical context, it is crucial for nurses to prioritize care based on the urgency of the situation to ensure timely and appropriate interventions for clients with critical conditions. Understanding the pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of various emergency conditions enables nurses to make informed decisions regarding patient care and prioritize interventions effectively to optimize outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

When making a home visit to a client with chronic pyelonephritis, which nursing action has the highest priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing action when making a home visit to a client with chronic pyelonephritis is option B: Observe client findings for the effectiveness of antibiotics. This is the correct choice because chronic pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires monitoring of the client's response to antibiotic therapy. By observing the client's findings, such as temperature, pain level, and overall well-being, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of the treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Option A, following up on lab values before the visit, is not the highest priority as the client's current condition and response to treatment at the time of the visit are more crucial. Lab values can provide valuable information, but real-time assessment of the client's well-being is paramount. Option C, asking for a log of urinary output, and option D, asking for a log of oral intake, are important aspects of care for a client with pyelonephritis. However, in this situation, monitoring the client's response to antibiotics takes precedence as it directly influences the client's recovery and overall health. From an educational perspective, understanding the prioritization of nursing actions based on the client's condition and treatment plan is essential for providing safe and effective care. By recognizing the significance of assessing the client's response to antibiotics in a client with chronic pyelonephritis, nurses can enhance their clinical judgment and decision-making skills in similar situations.

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