ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a drug that obeys first-order (linear) kinetics and fits a one-compartment model for elimination:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For first-order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration, ensuring constant percentage clearance over time.
Question 2 of 9
For a drug that obeys first-order (linear) kinetics and fits a one-compartment model for elimination:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For first-order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration, ensuring constant percentage clearance over time.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse assumes care of a patient in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). The patient had abdominal surgery and is receiving intravenous morphine sulfate for pain. The patient is asleep and has not voided since prior to surgery. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and notes hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse will contact the surgeon primarily to report which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most critical condition that the nurse should report to the surgeon in this scenario is respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioid medications such as morphine sulfate. It is characterized by a decreased respiratory rate, which in this case, is 10 breaths per minute, indicating inadequate ventilation. Respiratory depression can lead to hypoxia and respiratory arrest if not promptly addressed. The nurse should prioritize notifying the surgeon to ensure immediate intervention and appropriate monitoring to prevent further complications for the patient. While the other conditions (paralytic ileus, somnolence, and urinary retention) are also relevant to the patient's care, respiratory depression poses the most immediate threat to the patient's safety and requires urgent attention.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is receiving lithium (Eskalith) and asks the nurse why he has to have blood drawn so often. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium's narrow therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) requires frequent blood draws to ensure levels stay safe and effective, preventing toxicity (e.g., tremors) or subtherapeutic dosing. Side effects are monitored clinically, not just by blood. Effectiveness and response tie to levels, but ‘correct amount' is precise, addressing the patient's query directly about monitoring's purpose.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the action of thrombin and factor Xa. Protamine works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. This helps to reverse the effects of heparin and control excessive bleeding in cases of overdose. It is important to administer protamine sulfate promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and prevent further bleeding complications. Options A, B, and D are not the correct antidotes for heparin overdose.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is available in a LAI formulation that may be useful for patients with difficulty adhering to therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone, a second-generation antipsychotic, offers a long-acting injectable (LAI) formulation (e.g., Risperdal Consta), administered every two weeks, improving adherence in schizophrenia patients with poor oral compliance. Asenapine is sublingual, not LAI. Chlorpromazine, a first-generation drug, lacks an LAI form. Clozapine, effective for treatment-resistant cases, is oral only due to agranulocytosis monitoring. Quetiapine has no LAI. Risperidone's LAI ensures steady drug levels, reducing relapse risk, making it ideal for adherence challenges, per clinical use.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse administers IV magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia. Which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures in preeclampsia via CNS depression. Absence of seizures indicates therapeutic effect, the primary goal. Decreased BP isn't magnesium's role'antihypertensives manage that. Increased urine output isn't specific. Reduced reflexes signal toxicity, not efficacy. Seizure prevention aligns with magnesium's mechanism, critical in preeclampsia where eclamptic risk is high, making D the key finding of successful therapy.
Question 8 of 9
The client has osteomalacia, and the physician has ordered a treatment to restore calcium balance. What will the nurse plan to administer to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Osteomalacia softens bones-vitamin D with calcium boosts absorption, correcting deficiency, per pathophysiology. Veggies and milk help but lack D's focus. Potassium is unrelated-D drives calcium use. This duo restores balance, per treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A drug that has both affinity and intrinsic activity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A drug that has both affinity and intrinsic activity is known as a partial agonist. Affinity refers to the drug's ability to bind to a receptor, while intrinsic activity is the drug's ability to activate the receptor and produce a response. A partial agonist binds to the receptor with affinity but only activates the receptor to a partial extent compared to a full agonist. This results in a less potent response compared to a full agonist but also blocks the full agonist's effects, making it act as an antagonist in the presence of a full agonist. In summary, a drug that has both affinity and intrinsic activity is classified as a partial agonist because it binds to the receptor and activates it but to a lesser extent than a full agonist.