ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7 Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a complete spinal injury, which statement is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in a complete spinal injury, both motor and sensory functions are lost below the level of the injury. This occurs due to the disruption of communication between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice A is incorrect as it implies that only some functions are lost, which is not the case in a complete injury. Choice B is incorrect because sensory functions are also affected in a complete spinal injury. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests that only sensory functions are lost, which is not true for a complete spinal injury.
Question 2 of 9
What is a key objective of community health nursing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because community health nursing focuses on improving the quality of life for individuals and families through health promotion and disease prevention. This encompasses a holistic approach that considers social determinants of health and empowers communities to make informed decisions. Providing curative services (A) is not the primary focus of community health nursing, as it aims to prevent illness before it occurs. Conducting research (D) is important but not a key objective of direct community health nursing practice. While promoting health and preventing disease (C) is a key objective, improving the quality of life (B) captures the overarching goal of community health nursing more comprehensively.
Question 3 of 9
Which action demonstrates primary prevention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease before it occurs. Administering immunizations is a key example of primary prevention as it directly targets the prevention of infectious diseases by building immunity. Immunizations protect individuals from getting sick in the first place, aligning with the primary prevention goal. Teaching healthy lifestyle behaviors (choice B) is more focused on health promotion rather than disease prevention. Educating about regular check-ups (choice C) falls under secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Screening for early signs of disease (choice D) is also considered secondary prevention as it aims to identify diseases at an early stage.
Question 4 of 9
When planning a health promotion program for a community, what information should be considered first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Understanding the health needs of the population is crucial as it helps in identifying the priority areas for intervention. Step 2: By focusing on health needs, the program can address the most pressing issues, leading to more effective outcomes. Step 3: Considering available resources or demographics without knowing the health needs may result in ineffective or irrelevant interventions. Step 4: The current health status is important but may not provide a comprehensive view of the underlying needs that require addressing.
Question 5 of 9
During secondary prevention activities, what action is a healthcare professional performing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing early treatment for disease. Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of a disease to prevent its progression. By providing early treatment, healthcare professionals aim to minimize the impact of the disease and prevent complications. Conducting health screenings (A) is part of primary prevention to identify risk factors before a disease develops. Administering medications (C) is a treatment intervention but not specific to secondary prevention. Referral to specialized care (D) may be needed but does not directly involve providing early treatment for the disease as in secondary prevention.
Question 6 of 9
Which best describes the concept of risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because risk is defined as the probability that an individual will develop a specific condition. This involves assessing the likelihood of an event occurring. Choice B focuses on the impact of a health condition, which is not the same as risk assessment. Choice C refers to the potential harm, but risk includes both the probability and potential consequences. Choice D is about exposure to health hazards, which is related to risk but doesn't fully encompass the concept. Therefore, option A best captures the essence of risk assessment.
Question 7 of 9
Which is an example of tertiary prevention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tertiary prevention focuses on managing and rehabilitating individuals who already have a disease or condition to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. Providing rehabilitation services falls under tertiary prevention as it aims to restore function and reduce disability post-diagnosis. B: Diagnosing and treating disease is considered secondary prevention, which aims to detect and treat diseases early to prevent progression. C: Health education to prevent complications is an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent the development of diseases or conditions. D: Screening for complications is part of secondary prevention, as it involves early detection and treatment to prevent complications.
Question 8 of 9
Which strategy is most effective in improving health literacy among patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using clear and simple language in communication is the most effective strategy in improving health literacy among patients. This approach ensures that information is easily understood and retained by patients of diverse educational backgrounds. Clear communication helps patients comprehend health-related information, make informed decisions, and follow treatment plans correctly. Providing health education sessions (choice B) may be beneficial, but the effectiveness can vary depending on the presentation and comprehension levels of patients. One-on-one counseling (choice C) is helpful, but it may not be feasible for all patients due to time and resource constraints. Distributing written materials (choice D) can be a useful supplement, but may not be as effective as clear verbal communication in addressing individual questions and concerns.
Question 9 of 9
Which factor is most closely linked to health disparities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Access to health care. Health disparities are predominantly influenced by unequal access to healthcare services, which can lead to differences in health outcomes among various populations. Limited access to healthcare can result in delayed or inadequate treatment, leading to poorer health outcomes. Lifestyle choices (B) and environmental factors (C) can contribute to health disparities, but access to healthcare plays a more significant role. Social support (D) is important for overall well-being but is not as closely linked to health disparities as access to healthcare.