ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention when assessing clients with hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching the client about both non-pharmacologic and pharmacologic methods for managing hypertension is a crucial nursing intervention to empower the client in their self-care and treatment plan. This intervention helps the client understand the importance of lifestyle modifications and medication adherence in controlling blood pressure. A: The nurse taking the temperature in different positions is not directly related to assessing hypertension. C: Taking BP in different positions is important for orthostatic hypotension, not specifically for hypertension. D: Weighing the client each morning is not a direct nursing intervention for assessing hypertension.
Question 3 of 9
A few hours before the patient was admitted at the hospital, he complained of fever, nausea and vomiting, and vague abdominal pain. The doctor examined the patient as a case of acute appendicitis and prepared for appendectomy. The nurse anticipates that this type of surgery is classified as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. Acute appendicitis is a condition that requires immediate surgical intervention to prevent complications like rupture. In an emergency surgery, the procedure must be done urgently to treat a life-threatening condition. In this case, the patient's symptoms indicate an urgent need for surgery to remove the inflamed appendix. Choice B: urgent, implies that surgery is needed promptly, but not immediately to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice C: elective, refers to a planned, non-urgent surgery that is scheduled in advance. Choice D: required, is a vague term and doesn't specify the urgency of the surgery, hence it is not the best classification for acute appendicitis surgery.
Question 4 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because completing a comprehensive database is part of the first phase of the nursing process, which is assessment. During assessment, the nurse gathers data about the patient's health status. This information is crucial for identifying health problems, developing nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses is part of the second phase, which is diagnosis. Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on priorities of patient care is part of the third phase, which is planning. Choice D is incorrect because determining whether outcomes have been achieved is part of the fourth phase, which is evaluation.
Question 6 of 9
When preparing a site for venipunctures with alcohol, how long must the area be cleaned?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 60 seconds. This is because the area must be cleaned for at least 60 seconds to effectively disinfect the skin and reduce the risk of infection during venipuncture. Cleaning for shorter durations (5, 10, or 30 seconds) may not be sufficient to achieve proper disinfection. Thoroughly cleaning the area for a full minute ensures that the alcohol has enough time to kill bacteria and pathogens on the skin, making it safer for the venipuncture procedure. Shorter cleaning times may leave pathogens behind, increasing the risk of contamination and infection.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? In the PQRST mnemonic, "P" stands for provocation, "Q" for quality, "R" for region/radiation, "S" for severity, and "T" for timing. The question "Where is the pain located?" corresponds to the "R" component, which is region/radiation. This question helps the nurse identify the specific area where the pain is localized, which can provide valuable information for diagnosis. Explanation of other choices: B: What causes the pain? This question relates more to the "P" component, which is provocation, rather than the region/radiation aspect. C: Does it come and go? This question pertains to the "T" component, which is timing, focusing on the pattern of the pain rather than the specific location. D: What does the pain feel like? This question is more aligned with the "Q" component, which is quality,
Question 8 of 9
A client has cancer that has me tastasized to her bones. She is complaining of increased thirst, polyuria and decreased muscle tone. Her lab values are: Na 139mEq/L, k 4 mEq/L, Cl 103 mEq/L, and Ca 8 mg/dl. What electrolyte imbalance is present?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. Increased thirst and polyuria are symptoms of hypercalcemia, as excess calcium can lead to dehydration and increased urine output. Decreased muscle tone is also a common symptom of hypercalcemia. The lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl confirms high levels of calcium in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Hypocalcemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl indicates normal to high levels of calcium, ruling out hypocalcemia. B: Hyperkalemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of K 4 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hyperkalemia. D: Hypochloremia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Cl 103 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hypochloremia.
Question 9 of 9
What are the signs of organ rejection a nurse should closely monitor for when caring for a client after heart transplantation? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a common sign of organ rejection after heart transplantation, indicating possible heart failure. Low white blood cell count (A) is not typically a direct sign of organ rejection. ECG changes (C) may occur but are not specific to organ rejection. Fever (D) is a non-specific symptom and can be caused by various factors. Dyspnea is a key indicator that the transplanted heart is not functioning properly and should be closely monitored.