ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 2 of 9
The best way to tell whether or not a patient is breathing, is for the nurse to watch the movement of the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Chest and nostrils." This is because observing the movement of the chest and nostrils is the most reliable way to determine if a patient is breathing. The chest rises and falls with each breath, and the nostrils may flare or move as air is inhaled and exhaled. Monitoring these areas provides a direct indication of respiratory effort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the act of breathing. Extremities, head, and eyeball movements are not reliable indicators of breathing function.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH, which regulates water balance by reducing urine output. Without ADH, excessive urination and thirst occur. FSH, TSH, and LH are not related to water balance regulation. FSH and LH are involved in reproductive functions, while TSH regulates thyroid hormone production. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the importance of ADH in managing diabetes insipidus.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who has diarrhea. Which of the following would be most therapeutic to teach the patient to avoid in the diet to reduce diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raw fruits and vegetables. Patients with HIV and diarrhea should avoid raw fruits and vegetables due to their high fiber content, which can exacerbate diarrhea symptoms. Fiber can increase bowel movements and worsen diarrhea. Therefore, avoiding raw fruits and vegetables can help reduce diarrhea. Choice A (Potassium-rich food) is not the best answer because potassium-rich foods are important for patients with HIV to maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B (Liquid nutritional supplements) can actually be beneficial in providing essential nutrients to patients with HIV. Choice D (Frozen products) is not directly related to diarrhea management in patients with HIV.
Question 5 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as excess body fat, especially around the waist, can lead to inflammation and insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of cancerous cell growth in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung and other types of cancer, not specifically colon cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice C) is linked to other types of cancer, such as liver and esophageal cancer, but not as strongly to colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to an increased risk of colon cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: Footboard and splint: 1. Footboard helps prevent foot drop by maintaining proper alignment and preventing pressure ulcers. 2. Splint helps stabilize and support Franco's limbs to prevent contractures and maintain proper positioning. 3. Both items are essential for Franco's safety, comfort, and prevention of complications. 4. Hand bell and extra bed linen (Choice A) are not crucial for Franco's immediate care needs. 5. Sandbag and trochanter rolls (Choice C) are not directly relevant to Franco's specific conditions. 6. Suction machine and gloves (Choice D) are important for airway management but not the priority for bedside equipment in this case.
Question 7 of 9
Which type of neuron transmits impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Efferent neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands. This is because efferent neurons are responsible for carrying motor signals away from the central nervous system to control muscle movement and gland secretion. Afferent neurons (choice A) transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system. Affective (choice B) is not a term used in neuroscience for describing neuron functions. Effective (choice D) is not a term used in neuroscience and does not describe the specific function of transmitting impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Proper positioning helps maintain alignment and prevent deformities in muscles and joints. Step 2: It reduces the risk of contractures by ensuring that Mr. Gabatan's lower extremities are in optimal positions. Step 3: This promotes circulation and reduces pressure on bony prominences. Step 4: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity, tilt board may not address positioning adequately, and deep massage may not prevent contractures effectively.
Question 9 of 9
Mr. Boy, a 65-year old man, has been admitted wth severe flame burns resulting from smoking in bed. The nurse can expect his room environment to include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a semi-private room. For a burn patient like Mr. Boy, a semi-private room is preferred to provide a more controlled environment for infection prevention, wound care, and privacy. Strict isolation (A) is not necessary as his burns are not infectious. Liberal visiting (C) can increase the risk of infection and compromise his recovery. Sharing equipment (D) can lead to cross-contamination and is not recommended for burn patients. In summary, a semi-private room balances infection control and patient comfort for burn patients.