ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters
Question 3 of 9
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff conditions is evident by persistent hoarseness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. In the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to form a comprehensive database about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it provides the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining whether outcomes have been achieved (D) is in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database in the first phase ensures a thorough understanding of the patient's needs before proceeding to the next steps in the nursing process.
Question 6 of 9
As the nurse cares for a patient with angioedema, differs from urticaria in that angioedema is characterized by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: Angioedema differs from urticaria as it involves deeper swelling in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue, leading to a more profound and firm texture. This contrasts with urticaria, which presents as superficial, raised wheals on the skin. Therefore, option C is correct. Summary of other choices: A: Angioedema is not typically associated with intense itching, so it is not more pruritic than urticaria. B: Angioedema does not have small, fluid-filled vesicles like in allergic contact dermatitis. D: Angioedema tends to last longer than urticaria, making this statement incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff is a nursing intervention when assessing clients with hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching the client about both non-pharmacologic and pharmacologic methods for managing hypertension is a crucial nursing intervention to empower the client in their self-care and treatment plan. This intervention helps the client understand the importance of lifestyle modifications and medication adherence in controlling blood pressure. A: The nurse taking the temperature in different positions is not directly related to assessing hypertension. C: Taking BP in different positions is important for orthostatic hypotension, not specifically for hypertension. D: Weighing the client each morning is not a direct nursing intervention for assessing hypertension.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about the benefits of Nursing Outcomes Classification. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Nursing Outcomes Classification adds objectivity to judging a patient's progress by providing standardized criteria for assessing outcomes. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and tracking improvements accurately. Other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because Nursing Outcomes Classification includes 7 domains but not necessarily for level 1; B is incorrect as it uses a 5-point Likert scale, not a 3-point scale; and D is inaccurate because Nursing Outcomes Classification guides the selection of interventions based on the identified outcomes, not allowing complete freedom in choosing interventions.