ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
For a client with sickle cell anemia, how does the nurse assess for jaundice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because jaundice is a common manifestation of sickle cell anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells. The nurse should inspect the skin and sclera for the characteristic yellow discoloration indicating jaundice. This assessment is specific to identifying jaundice, which is directly related to the disease process. Choice A is incorrect as it relates to assessing neurological function, not jaundice. Choice B is incorrect as joint swelling is not a typical sign of jaundice in sickle cell anemia. Choice D is incorrect as a urine specimen is not used to assess jaundice; skin and sclera inspection are more appropriate.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is essential for a client during the Schilling test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because collecting urine 24-48 hrs after the client has received nonradioactive B12 is essential for the Schilling test to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption. Urine is collected to measure the excretion of radioactive B12, which helps in diagnosing pernicious anemia or malabsorption issues. Incorrect choices: B: Collecting blood samples is not necessary for the Schilling test as it primarily involves urine collection. C: Allowing oral fluid consumption is important to prevent dehydration and is not contraindicated after receiving nonradioactive B12. D: Making the client lie down in the supine position is unnecessary for the Schilling test and may not affect the test results.
Question 3 of 9
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.
Question 4 of 9
A man with a history of diabetes and chronic lung disease is admitted to the hospital with prostate cancer. He has all the following symptoms. Which should the nurse address first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate 36/min. In this case, the nurse should address the respiratory rate first due to the patient's chronic lung disease, indicating potential respiratory distress. High respiratory rate may signify hypoxia, infection, or worsening lung function, posing immediate life-threatening risks. Addressing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Fever (A) and difficulty urinating (B) are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress. Painful legs and feet (D) may indicate peripheral neuropathy related to diabetes, which is important but not as critical as addressing the respiratory issue.
Question 5 of 9
A 39 y.o. homemaker sees her physician after she falls twice for seemingly no reason. Diagnostic tests are done, and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the ff. explanations will help her understand her disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, not a build-up of myelin. Step 2: MS affects the nerves, not neurotransmitters related to muscle contraction (eliminates choice B). Step 3: MS does not damage receptor sites on muscles but affects nerve signal transmission (eliminates choice C). Step 4: The correct answer, D, explains that MS damages the insulation on nerve cells (myelin sheath), leading to slower nerve impulses to the muscles, causing weakness and coordination issues.
Question 6 of 9
A patient was recently diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse and the patient have established a goal that the patient will not experience shortness of breath with activity in 3 days with an expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. Which evaluative measure will the nurse use to demonstrate progress toward this goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct evaluative measure is D: Lungs clear to auscultation following use of inhaler. This choice aligns with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. By using an inhaler to clear the lungs, the nurse can assess if the expected outcome is being met. This measure directly evaluates the presence of secretions in the lungs, in line with the established goal. Incorrect Choices: A: No sputum or cough present in 4 days - This measure does not align with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. B: Congestion throughout all lung fields in 2 days - This indicates a worsening condition and does not demonstrate progress towards the goal. C: Shallow, fast respirations 30 breaths per minute in 1 day - This measure is unrelated to the presence of secretions in the lungs and the goal of avoiding shortness of breath with activity.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? In the PQRST mnemonic, "P" stands for provocation, "Q" for quality, "R" for region/radiation, "S" for severity, and "T" for timing. The question "Where is the pain located?" corresponds to the "R" component, which is region/radiation. This question helps the nurse identify the specific area where the pain is localized, which can provide valuable information for diagnosis. Explanation of other choices: B: What causes the pain? This question relates more to the "P" component, which is provocation, rather than the region/radiation aspect. C: Does it come and go? This question pertains to the "T" component, which is timing, focusing on the pattern of the pain rather than the specific location. D: What does the pain feel like? This question is more aligned with the "Q" component, which is quality,
Question 8 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.
Question 9 of 9
Which screening test for colorectal cancer should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct screening test for colorectal cancer is D: Proctosigmoidoscopy after age 50. This test allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, aiding in the detection of polyps or tumors. It is recommended for individuals over 50 years old to screen for colorectal cancer. A: CEA test is not a primary screening tool but rather used for monitoring cancer progression. B: Annual digital examination is not sufficient for colorectal cancer screening. C: Barium enema is less effective compared to colonoscopy for detecting abnormalities in the colon.