Following treatment with a highly efficient anti-tuberculosis drug a 48-yearold female developed optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, cramps. Which of these anti-TB drugs had the patient taken?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cannot induce infectious disease. Saprophytes are microorganisms that obtain nutrients from decaying organic matter and do not cause infectious diseases in humans. They play a vital role in the ecosystem by decomposing dead organisms. Choice A is incorrect because saprophytes do not cause typical infections. Choice C is incorrect because saprophytes do not cause chronic infections. Choice D is incorrect because saprophytes do not cause mixed infections involving multiple pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is B as saprophytes do not induce infectious diseases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adhesion. Pili are bacterial appendages that help bacteria adhere to surfaces. This is important for colonization and biofilm formation. Choice A (Chemotaxis) is incorrect because chemotaxis is the movement of bacteria in response to chemical stimuli, not the function of pili. Choice C (Nutrient acquisition) is incorrect because pili are not directly involved in obtaining nutrients. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as pili do serve a specific purpose, which is adhesion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan commonly found in the oral cavity and does not have a cyst stage. This organism typically inhabits the gingival crevices and can be identified in dental plaque samples. Entamoeba gingivalis (B) is an amoeba and does not have flagella. Balantidium coli (C) is a ciliated protozoan that infects the intestines, not the oral cavity. Giardia lamblia (D) is a flagellated protozoan that infects the intestines and has a distinct cyst stage. Therefore, the presence of flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage in dental plaque indicates Trichomonas tenax is likely present.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is specifically used to treat intestinal candidiasis because it targets and eliminates the Candida species responsible for the infection. It is not absorbed systemically, acting only locally in the gastrointestinal tract. Griseofulvin (B) is mainly used to treat fungal skin infections, not intestinal candidiasis. Undecyne (C) is an antifungal agent used for skin infections, not for intestinal candidiasis. Amphotericin B (D) is a potent antifungal agent used for systemic fungal infections, not specifically for intestinal candidiasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM is the first antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth. It is produced by B cells in response to initial exposure to antigens. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG is transferred from mother to fetus, and IgD functions in the early stages of B cell development. Therefore, IgM is the most suitable choice as the antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CMV. Patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation are monitored for CMV reactivation due to its potential to cause severe complications in immunocompromised individuals. CMV can lead to organ damage and even mortality in these patients. Monitoring for CMV reactivation allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Incorrect Choices: A: HAV - Hepatitis A virus reactivation is not commonly monitored in post-transplant patients. C: Rubella virus - Rubella is not a common concern for reactivation in this patient population. D: Measles virus - Measles reactivation is not typically monitored in these patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, which can form spores that are highly resistant and can survive in the soil for long periods. These spores can remain dormant until they come into contact with a susceptible host, leading to infection. Diphtheria, viral hepatitis, and pertussis are caused by different types of pathogens (bacteria and viruses) that do not have the same ability to persist in soil as anthrax spores. Therefore, the causative agents of these diseases are less likely to exist in the soil for extended periods compared to anthrax spores.