ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the American Cancer Society recommends women to have a mammogram annually starting at age 45, then have the option to transition to biennial screening at age 55. This recommendation is based on evidence that regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer early, increasing chances of successful treatment. Choice A is incorrect because self-examinations are no longer recommended as a routine screening method. Choice B is incorrect as clinical breast exams are not as effective as mammograms for detecting breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as normal receptor assays are not part of routine breast cancer screening guidelines.
Question 2 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and progressive systemic sclerosis can lead to impaired circulation and skin breakdown. Clients with these conditions are at risk for pressure ulcers due to decreased blood flow and compromised skin integrity. The other options, B: Imbalanced nutrition, C: Constipation, and D: Ineffective thermoregulation, do not directly relate to the client's conditions or the potential complications associated with them. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be A: Risk for impaired skin integrity.
Question 3 of 9
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement) because after hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland), patients will no longer produce essential hormones like growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, etc. Therefore, they will require lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal bodily functions. A: Abnormal distribution of body hair is not directly related to hypophysectomy. C: While fluid intake may be important post-surgery, it is not the primary focus of teaching. D: There is typically no need for repeat surgical procedures after a hypophysectomy, as it is a one-time surgery to address specific issues. In summary, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the long-term implications of the surgery on hormone production and the need for replacement therapy, while the other choices are not directly relevant to the post-operative care of hypophysectomy patients.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is working in a support group for client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because following safer-sex practices is crucial in preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. By emphasizing this point, the nurse can educate clients on reducing the risk of transmission. Safer-sex practices include using condoms and practicing monogamy. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding recreational drugs and alcohol, while important for overall health, is not directly related to preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for individuals to inform their sexual partners about their HIV status to prevent transmission and ensure informed consent. Choice D is incorrect because while it may be required by law in some places, it is not the most crucial point for preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS within a support group setting.
Question 5 of 9
A 50-year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse assess for pallor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conjunctivae. Pallor is best assessed in the conjunctivae due to the transparent nature of the tissue, allowing for easy observation of paleness. The conjunctivae are the mucous membranes lining the inner surface of the eyelids and covering the sclera. Anemia can cause decreased hemoglobin levels, resulting in paleness of the mucous membranes. Assessing the scalp (A), chest (B), or axillae (C) may not provide a clear indication of pallor related to anemia. The conjunctivae offer a direct and reliable site to assess for pallor in patients with anemia.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because respiratory rate is an observable and measurable data point, making it objective. Objective data is factual and observable, such as vital signs. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data as they rely on the patient's perception or interpretation, which can be influenced by various factors and may not always be accurate or reliable. In this case, the nurse can directly measure and document the patient's respiratory rate, making it an objective piece of information.
Question 9 of 9
The physician orders tests to determine if a client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which test result confirms SLE?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: An above-normal anti-deoxyribonucleic acid. In SLE, the body produces antibodies against its own DNA, leading to the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies. Elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE, confirming the diagnosis. A: Increased total serum complement levels are seen in SLE due to complement activation but are not specific to SLE. C: Negative antinuclear antibody test is not consistent with SLE, as ANA positivity is common in SLE. D: Negative lupus erythematosus cell test is not specific to SLE as lupus erythematosus cells are not always present.