Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

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Oncology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

Question 2 of 5

A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) about potential complications. Which complication should the nurse emphasize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) are at a significant risk of infection due to their compromised immune system. Emphasizing the importance of infection prevention and prompt treatment is crucial in the care of these patients. Choice B, Hemorrhage, is less common in CLL compared to other types of leukemia. Choice C, Fatigue, is a common symptom but not a complication that poses immediate risks. Choice D, Splenomegaly, is a common finding in CLL but not the most critical complication to emphasize regarding patient education.

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