Following agent potentiates actions of GABA

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Introduction to the Pharmacology of CNS Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Following agent potentiates actions of GABA

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of CNS pharmacology, the correct answer to the question is option D: All of the above. This is because volatile anesthetics, barbiturates, and propofol all potentiate the actions of GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid), the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Volatile anesthetics such as isoflurane and desflurane enhance GABAergic transmission by interacting with GABA-A receptors, leading to increased inhibitory effects in the CNS. Barbiturates like phenobarbital also act on GABA-A receptors, potentiating GABA's inhibitory actions, which results in sedative and hypnotic effects. Propofol, a commonly used intravenous anesthetic, enhances GABAergic neurotransmission by increasing the duration of GABA-A receptor channel opening, leading to CNS depression and anesthesia. Option A (Volatile anesthetics), Option B (Barbiturates), and Option C (Propofol) are incorrect because each of them, individually, potentiates the actions of GABA in the CNS. Understanding how different pharmacological agents interact with GABA receptors is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in anesthesia, neurology, psychiatry, and pharmacology. By grasping the mechanisms through which these drugs enhance GABAergic transmission, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about drug selection, dosing, and potential drug interactions, ultimately ensuring safe and effective patient care in various clinical settings.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a recently developed antiepileptic drug used mainly as add-on therapy of refractory partial seizures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is a recently developed antiepileptic drug that is commonly used as add-on therapy for refractory partial seizures. It has been found to be effective in reducing seizure frequency and is well-tolerated by many patients. Option A) Viloxazine is not an antiepileptic drug but rather a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression and anxiety disorders. Option C) Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and for smoking cessation. It is not indicated for the treatment of epilepsy. Option D) Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia and treatment-resistant bipolar disorder. It is not an antiepileptic drug. Understanding the differences between these drugs is crucial in clinical practice to ensure appropriate treatment selection based on the patient's condition. Pharmacology of CNS drugs is a fundamental component of medical education, particularly in fields like neurology and psychiatry. It is essential for healthcare providers to have a strong grasp of the mechanisms of action, indications, and side effects of these drugs to make informed decisions in patient care.

Question 3 of 5

The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in Parkinsonism, but not that of levodopa-carbidopa combination is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of CNS drugs, especially in the treatment of Parkinsonism, understanding drug interactions is crucial. The correct answer to this question is B) Pyridoxine. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa alone but not the combination of levodopa-carbidopa. Levodopa is the precursor to dopamine and is a key medication in managing Parkinsonism. When levodopa is administered alone, a portion of it gets converted to dopamine peripherally, reducing the amount that reaches the brain. Pyridoxine enhances this peripheral conversion, thereby diminishing the therapeutic effect. On the other hand, the combination of levodopa-carbidopa includes carbidopa, which inhibits the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine centrally. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Metoclopramide: While metoclopramide can increase the absorption of levodopa, it does not abolish its therapeutic effect in the same way as pyridoxine. C) Chlorpromazine: This drug is not known to specifically interfere with the therapeutic effect of levodopa in Parkinsonism. D) Isoniazid: Isoniazid is used to treat tuberculosis and does not have a direct effect on levodopa therapy in Parkinsonism. Understanding these drug interactions is vital for healthcare professionals managing patients with Parkinsonism. It highlights the importance of considering not only the primary medication but also potential interactions that may impact treatment efficacy. This knowledge can help in optimizing treatment outcomes and avoiding unintended consequences in patient care.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of the pharmacology of CNS drugs, understanding the adverse effects associated with neuroleptic medications is crucial. The correct answer to the question is B) Extrapyramidal motor disturbances. This adverse effect is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances encompass a range of movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. These side effects are more prominent in high-potency neuroleptic drugs due to their strong blockade of dopamine receptors in the brain, particularly the D2 receptors. This blockade leads to an imbalance in dopamine levels, resulting in the development of extrapyramidal symptoms. Option A) Sedation is a common side effect of many CNS drugs but is not directly correlated with antipsychotic potency. Option C) Postural hypotension is more commonly associated with alpha-adrenergic blockade seen in some antipsychotic medications rather than antipsychotic potency. Option D) Lowering of seizure threshold is not a direct indicator of antipsychotic potency but rather a potential side effect seen with certain medications affecting GABAergic or glutamatergic neurotransmission. Educationally, understanding the relationship between antipsychotic potency and adverse effects helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing CNS drugs. By recognizing the side effect profile associated with different compounds, clinicians can tailor treatment plans to minimize adverse effects and improve patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which means it selectively blocks the reuptake of serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) in the brain. This action leads to increased levels of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, which is beneficial in treating depression. Desipramine (option A) is a tricyclic antidepressant that primarily acts by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and to a lesser extent serotonin. Amoxapine (option B) is a tetracyclic antidepressant with mixed effects on various neurotransmitters including serotonin. Dothiepin (option D) is another tricyclic antidepressant that primarily inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine. Understanding the mechanisms of action of different classes of antidepressants is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pharmacists and physicians, when making treatment decisions for patients with depression. Knowing the specific actions of each drug helps in selecting the most appropriate medication based on the patient's symptoms, medical history, and potential side effects. This knowledge also aids in monitoring for efficacy and adverse reactions during treatment.

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