ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Following a severe traumatic brain injury, a patient is experiencing alterations in consciousness characterized by periods of wakefulness but with no meaningful interaction with the environment. Which term best describes this state?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A vegetative state, now more commonly referred to as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, describes a condition where the patient is awake but with no awareness of themselves or their surroundings. This state usually follows a severe brain injury, such as traumatic brain injury. Patients in a vegetative state may have sleep-wake cycles, open their eyes, and even exhibit reflex movements, but they do not demonstrate any meaningful interaction with the environment. Differentiating between coma and vegetative state is important, as coma implies a complete lack of consciousness, while patients in a vegetative state have preserved wakefulness without awareness. Minimally conscious state (choice C) refers to a condition where there are some minimal signs of awareness or purposeful interaction, making it a different state than the one described in the scenario. Locked-in syndrome (choice D) is a condition where the patient is conscious and aware but unable to move or communicate due to paralysis, which is not consistent
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the MOST common emotional response among women during the First trimester of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ambivalence is the most common emotional response among women during the first trimester of pregnancy. This is because the news of being pregnant might evoke a mix of emotions, including joy and apprehension. Women may feel uncertain about their readiness for the responsibility of motherhood, have concerns about changes in their body, or worry about the impact on their career or relationships. Ambivalence is a natural response to a significant life change, and many women experience conflicting feelings before fully accepting and embracing their pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
Should the investigation of the fall go further, which of the following is the best source of factual information ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The incident report is the best source of factual information to investigate the fall further. Incident reports are official documents that provide a detailed account of what happened leading up to and during an incident. They include factual information such as the date, time, location, individuals involved, and details of the event. By reviewing the incident report, investigators can gather accurate information to determine the cause of the fall and any contributing factors. This document serves as an essential tool in conducting a thorough investigation into the fall and helps in identifying preventive measures to avoid similar incidents in the future.
Question 4 of 9
Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage? Blood loss of _____.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss of more than 500 ml within the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml following a cesarean delivery. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock and can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, a blood loss of more than 500 ml/24 hours would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage and prompt further assessment and intervention.
Question 5 of 9
Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is primarily the responsibility of the physician. Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal concept in healthcare that requires the healthcare provider, usually the physician, to ensure that the patient understands the proposed treatment, including the risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential outcomes, before agreeing to proceed with the treatment. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, and midwives, may also play a role in the informed consent process by providing information and clarifying details, it is ultimately the physician who must obtain the patient's informed consent before any treatment or procedure is performed.
Question 6 of 9
The charts are stored in the Medical Records or storage room for at least _____ years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical records are typically required to be retained for a certain period of time as mandated by legal and regulatory requirements. The retention period for medical records is generally between 5 to 10 years, depending on the jurisdiction and specific regulations governing healthcare facilities. Keeping medical records for this duration ensures that they are available for reference, audits, legal purposes, and continuity of care for patients. Storing medical records for an adequate length of time also helps in ensuring continuity of care and tracking patients' medical history over time, which is crucial for quality healthcare delivery. Therefore, storing charts in the Medical Records or storage room for at least 5-10 years aligns with standard practices in healthcare compliance and patient care.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and is exacerbated by deep breathing or changes in body position. The pain improves with leaning forward. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. Patients with pericarditis typically present with sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breathing, changes in body position, and coughing. The pain tends to improve when the patient leans forward. This characteristic symptom of pericarditis is known as "pleuritic" chest pain. In contrast, stable angina presents as predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is considered a medical emergency. Myocarditis involves inflammation of the heart muscle and may present with symptoms such as chest pain, but it does not typically have the characteristic of worsening with deep breathing or changes in body position.