ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an increase in pulmonary artery diastolic pressure indicates left-sided heart failure. In this scenario, the left side of the heart is unable to adequately pump blood to the rest of the body, causing an increase in pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This finding is consistent with the pathophysiology of left-sided heart failure. A: A drop in central venous pressure is more indicative of hypovolemia or right-sided heart failure. B: An increase in the cardiac index may suggest improved cardiac output, not specifically left-sided heart failure. D: A decline in mean pulmonary artery pressure is not a typical finding in left-sided heart failure.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in aortic stenosis, there is an obstruction of blood flow from the heart to the body. Strenuous activities can worsen the condition by increasing the workload on the heart, leading to angina and fainting. Preoperative preparation focuses on reducing the risk of complications during surgery. Therefore, advising the client to avoid strenuous exercise, stairs, and lifting helps minimize the risk of exacerbating symptoms and potential complications before surgery. Explanation for other choices: B: Taking short walks may be too strenuous for a client with aortic stenosis and can potentially worsen symptoms. C: Allowing unrestricted activity can be dangerous for a client with aortic stenosis, as it may lead to worsening symptoms and increased risk of complications. D: Gradually increasing activity can be risky for a client with aortic stenosis, as it can increase the workload on the heart and exacerbate symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing a deep-vein thrombosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A 40-year-old woman who smokes and uses oral contraceptives is at highest risk due to the combined effects of smoking and oral contraceptives, both of which increase the risk of blood clot formation. Smoking damages blood vessels and increases clotting tendency. Oral contraceptives also increase the risk of clotting due to hormonal changes. These factors can lead to the development of deep-vein thrombosis. Summary: A: 30-year-old postpartum client is at lower risk compared to smoking and oral contraceptive use. B: 63-year-old post-CVA on anticoagulant therapy is already being treated to prevent clots. D: 41-year-old female post-surgery is at lower risk compared to smoking and oral contraceptive use.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is admitted in acute distress with unrelieved back pain that radiates to his groin. This patient has a history of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What additional signs and symptoms might the patient state?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit to left of the midline in the abdominal area. This is indicative of a possible ruptured AAA, as a bruit in the abdominal area can suggest turbulent blood flow due to an aneurysm. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Midsternal chest pressure relieved with nitroglycerin paste is more indicative of cardiac issues; C) Extreme headache is not typically associated with AAA; D) Numbness and tingling in the hands and arms are more suggestive of neurological issues rather than AAA. In summary, the presence of a bruit in the abdominal area is a key sign that should raise suspicion for a ruptured AAA in this patient.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has multiple saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 beats per minute. This patient's rhythm is most likely
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial flutter. A saw-toothed appearance of P waves at a rate of 300 bpm is characteristic of atrial flutter. In atrial flutter, the atria depolarize at a rapid rate, leading to a typical saw-tooth pattern on ECG. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) typically presents with sudden onset and termination of a regular tachycardia, not saw-toothed P waves. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are early atrial depolarizations, not sustained at 300 bpm. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves.