ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A rise in pulmonary artery diastolic pressure. This finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure because increased pressure in the pulmonary artery indicates increased resistance to blood flow from the left side of the heart. Left-sided heart failure leads to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation, causing elevated pressures in the pulmonary artery. A: A drop in central venous pressure is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. B: An increase in the cardiac index may indicate compensation for decreased cardiac output, but it is not specific to left-sided heart failure. D: A decline in mean pulmonary artery pressure is not a typical finding in left-sided heart failure, as it usually causes increased pressure in the pulmonary artery due to congestion.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a dignosis of aortic stenosis. The client reports episodes of angina and passing out recently at home. The client has surgery scheduled in 2 weeks. Which of the following would be the nurse's best explanation about activity at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because strenuous activities can worsen aortic stenosis symptoms like angina and syncope. Stairs and lifting can increase the workload on the heart, which is already compromised in aortic stenosis. By avoiding these activities, the client reduces the risk of complications before surgery. Choice B is incorrect because although some activity is encouraged, taking short walks may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing angina and syncope. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for angina to reoccur before taking action can be dangerous, as it may indicate worsening of the condition. Choice D is incorrect because gradually increasing activity may not be safe for someone with aortic stenosis, as it can exacerbate symptoms and increase the risk of complications.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing a deep-vein thrombosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because smoking and oral contraceptive use are both risk factors for developing deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Smoking increases the risk of blood clot formation, while oral contraceptives can also contribute to blood clot formation. The combination of these two factors significantly increases the likelihood of developing DVT. Choice A is less likely to develop DVT as being young and postpartum does not carry as high a risk compared to the other options. Choice B, although on anticoagulant therapy, is at a lower risk compared to Choice C due to the specific risk factors mentioned. Choice D, having undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy, has a lower risk compared to Choice C as surgery alone is not as significant a risk factor for DVT as smoking and oral contraceptive use.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is admitted in acute distress with unrelieved back pain that radiates to his groin. This patient has a history of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What additional signs and symptoms might the patient state?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit to left of the midline in the abdominal area. This is indicative of a possible AAA complication, such as a rupture or impending rupture. A bruit in the abdominal area can signify turbulent blood flow due to the AAA. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms of AAA. Choice A is more indicative of cardiac issues, choice C suggests a possible neurological problem, and choice D is more related to cervical spine issues. Hence, choice B is the most relevant additional sign and symptom in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has multiple saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 beats per minute. This patient's rhythm is most likely
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial flutter. Atrial flutter typically presents with a saw-tooth appearance of P waves at a rate of around 250-350 beats per minute. This rhythm is characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations originating from a single ectopic focus in the atria. In contrast, Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) is usually faster with rates above 150 bpm, Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are isolated premature beats, and Atrial fibrillation is irregularly irregular with no defined P waves. Therefore, the saw-toothed P waves at a rate of 300 bpm align with the characteristics of atrial flutter.