ATI RN
ATI Cardiovascular Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Fluoroquinolones are active against:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because fluoroquinolones are broad-spectrum antibiotics effective against a variety of Gram-negative and Gram-positive microorganisms, including Mycoplasmas and Chlamydiae. Fluoroquinolones work by targeting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, which are essential for DNA replication. This mechanism of action allows fluoroquinolones to inhibit the growth of a wide range of bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because fluoroquinolones are not limited to only Gram-negative or Gram-positive microorganisms, but rather have activity against both types of bacteria, making them effective against a diverse range of pathogens.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following actions most likely contribute to mortality reduction obtained by beta-blockers in myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased myocardial remodeling. Beta-blockers decrease the workload of the heart by reducing heart rate and contractility, which in turn decreases myocardial oxygen demand and reduces the risk of further damage to the heart muscle post-myocardial infarction. This leads to a decrease in adverse remodeling of the heart, improving overall cardiac function and reducing mortality. Incorrect Choices: A: Increased myocardial oxygen supply - Beta-blockers do not directly increase myocardial oxygen supply but rather decrease oxygen demand. B: Decreased atrioventricular conduction - While beta-blockers can slow atrioventricular conduction, this is not the primary mechanism for mortality reduction in myocardial infarction. D: Increased systemic vascular resistance - Beta-blockers actually decrease systemic vascular resistance, which can be beneficial in certain conditions but is not the primary reason for mortality reduction in myocardial infarction.
Question 3 of 5
A 59-year-old woman presented with an abrupt onset of palpitations accompanied by a vague complaint of feeling ill. Subsequent Holter monitoring revealed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response up to 152 bpm. The patient's past history included primary hyperparathyroidism and intermittent claudication for 3 years, apparently due to peripheral occlusive arteriosclerosis. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for the chronic control of the patient's arrhythmia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can be used for rate control in atrial fibrillation. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, slowing the heart rate and reducing the force of contraction. In this case, the patient has atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response, and propranolol can help slow the heart rate to a more appropriate level. A: Digoxin is primarily used for rate control in patients with heart failure, not as the first-line agent for atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. C: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can also be used for rate control in atrial fibrillation, but beta-blockers are generally preferred in patients with concomitant peripheral artery disease. D: Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic agent used for ventricular arrhythmias, not appropriate for atrial fibrillation.
Question 4 of 5
The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.