ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Five girls were victims of wasp and bee bites. Emergency treatment for these includes:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a poultice of sodium bicarbonate and water can help neutralize the venom and reduce pain from wasp and bee bites. Sodium bicarbonate has alkaline properties that can counteract the acidic venom. Option B is incorrect as household ammonia can cause skin irritation and should not be applied to insect bites. Option C is incorrect because only option A is a safe and effective treatment for wasp and bee bites. Option D is incorrect as there is a suitable emergency treatment available.
Question 2 of 9
Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client care fully for which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocortisolism. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed or partially removed, leading to decreased cortisol production. Signs of hypocortisolism include weakness, fatigue, hypotension, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Hyperglycemia (B) is not typically associated with this procedure. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a common concern post-hypophysectomy. Hypercalcemia (D) is not directly related to pituitary gland removal. Therefore, assessing for hypocortisolism is crucial for early detection and management post-surgery.
Question 3 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it is essential to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate precautions and interventions. By asking the patient to describe the type of reaction, the nurse can gather crucial information to ensure patient safety. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview prematurely is not appropriate without gathering important information about the allergy. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the allergy is important, but assessing the type of reaction should be the initial priority.
Question 4 of 9
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with metal implants in their body. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields, which can interact with metal implants, causing movement or heating of the metal and potential harm to the client. This could lead to serious injuries or complications during the scan. Overweight clients (choice A), clients over the age of 60 (choice C), and clients with brain tumors (choice D) do not have contraindications for an MRI scan.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions will help prevent a further increase in ICP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is the correct answer because it helps to promote venous drainage, reduce cerebral edema, and decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). By positioning the patient with the head elevated, gravity assists in preventing further increases in ICP. Encouraging fluids may lead to fluid overload and exacerbate cerebral edema. Providing physical therapy and frequent repositioning may increase ICP by causing unnecessary movement and potential strain on the patient's head and neck.
Question 6 of 9
The effectiveness of Levodopa can be reduced when taking:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyridoxine. Pyridoxine can reduce the effectiveness of Levodopa by converting it into dopamine before it reaches the brain, decreasing the therapeutic effects. Bromocriptine and Amantadine are actually used in combination with Levodopa to enhance its effects by different mechanisms. Choosing Amantadine as the answer is incorrect because it is listed twice in the choices and would not interfere with Levodopa's effectiveness.
Question 7 of 9
A client was brought to the emergency room with complains of difficulty of breathing. What can lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C being correct: 1. Restlessness: Indicates increased work of breathing and hypoxia. 2. Suprasternal retractions: Sign of respiratory distress. 3. paO2 of 62: Indicates severe hypoxemia, common in ARDS. Summary: A: Enlarged heart on x-ray does not directly indicate ARDS. B: Thick green sputum suggests infection, not specific to ARDS. D: Wheezes and slow respirations are not typical of ARDS, and pCO2 is normal in ARDS.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is conducting a nursing history of a client with a respiratory rate of 30, audible wheezing, and nasal flaring. During the interview, the client denies problems with breathing. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The nurse should clarify discrepancies of assessment data with the client to ensure accurate information. 2. The client's denial of breathing problems conflicts with physical signs, indicating a potential lack of awareness or reluctance to disclose symptoms. 3. By clarifying with the client, the nurse can address any misunderstandings or encourage honest communication. 4. This approach promotes client-centered care and ensures a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it addresses the need to clarify discrepancies with the client for accurate assessment. - Choice B is incorrect as validation with the healthcare team may not provide insight into the client's perception. - Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to resolve conflicting assessment data. - Choice D is incorrect as family input may not provide accurate information if the client denies symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
In which of the ff circumstances should a nurse avoid using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy? Choose all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To administer antineoplastic chemotherapy. This is because antineoplastic chemotherapy agents are highly irritating and toxic to the surrounding tissues. Using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy in this case can increase the risk of extravasation, leading to tissue damage and potential complications. Incorrect choices: A: To administer solutions with a pH greater than 5 and less than 9 - pH of the solution does not directly affect the choice of site for IV therapy. C: To administer slow, low-volume infusions - Midline and mid clavicular sites can be appropriate for slow, low-volume infusions. D: To administer high-pressure bolus injections - While midline and mid clavicular sites may not be ideal for high-pressure bolus injections, the question specifically mentions IV therapy, not bolus injections.