Fibrinolytic drugs are used for following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart failure. Fibrinolytic drugs are not typically used in the treatment of heart failure because they are primarily used to dissolve blood clots. In central deep venous thrombosis (A), multiple pulmonary emboli (B), and acute myocardial infarction (D), the formation of blood clots is a major concern, making fibrinolytic drugs an appropriate treatment option to break down these clots and restore blood flow. In contrast, heart failure does not involve the presence of blood clots, so fibrinolytic drugs would not be effective in managing this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. Step 2: Sedative and hypnotic effects are common side effects of clonidine due to its action on the central nervous system. Step 3: Parkinson’s syndrome (Choice A) is not an unwanted effect of clonidine. Step 4: Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia (Choice C) are rare but serious adverse effects, not typically associated with clonidine. Step 5: Dry cough and respiratory depression (Choice D) are not common side effects of clonidine. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is B, as sedative and hypnotic effects are expected with clonidine use, making them unwanted effects.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The oral route is not the preferred method of administering ACTH because it has poor oral bioavailability. ACTH is typically administered parenterally. A: True, endogenous ACTH is also known as corticotropin. B: Correct, ACTH stimulates corticosteroid synthesis. C: True, ACTH is clinically useful in diagnosing adrenal insufficiency. Therefore, choice D is incorrect due to poor oral bioavailability compared to parenteral routes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certainly! Glucagon can be used in severe hyperglycemia because it stimulates the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream, helping to lower blood sugar levels. In contrast, using glucagon for severe hypoglycemia can worsen the condition by further decreasing blood sugar levels. It is not typically used for endocrine diagnosis or beta-blocker poisoning as there are more effective treatments available for these situations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piroxicam. Piroxicam is a nonselective COX inhibitor because it inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. This makes it effective for reducing inflammation by blocking prostaglandin synthesis. Rofecoxib (B) is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, while Celecoxib (C) is also a selective COX-2 inhibitor. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as well because not all listed NSAIDs are nonselective COX inhibitors.