Familial chylomicronemia (type I) is caused by deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity. This consideration is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Familial chylomicronemia (type I) is indeed caused by a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity. Lipoprotein lipase is essential for breaking down chylomicrons, which are fat particles in the blood. Without enough lipoprotein lipase activity, chylomicrons accumulate in the blood, leading to symptoms of type I hyperlipoproteinemia. Therefore, the deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity is the primary cause of familial chylomicronemia. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - This is incorrect as the deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity is the cause of familial chylomicronemia. C: All - This is incorrect as not all choices are correct. Only choice A is true. D: None - This is incorrect as choice A is true.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because calcium interactions with other drugs involve various mechanisms. Ethanol decreases calcium absorption, loop diuretics increase renal excretion of calcium, and glucocorticoids stimulate renal excretion. Therefore, all of the above options are correct in describing different interactions of calcium with these drugs. The incorrect choices are A, B, and C because they do not accurately represent the interactions with calcium as described in the question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Collecting duct. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the aldosterone receptor in the collecting duct of the nephron. This inhibits sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because spironolactone does not primarily act on the proximal convoluted tubule, ascending thick limb of the loop of Henle, or distal convoluted tubule.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is used for dermatomycosis treatment because it is an antifungal medication specifically effective against dermatophytes. It works by disrupting the formation of fungal cell walls, leading to their destruction. Nystatin (A) is primarily used for yeast infections, not dermatomycosis. Amphotericin B (C) is a broad-spectrum antifungal, but it is not commonly used for dermatomycosis due to its potential side effects. Vancomycin (D) is an antibiotic effective against bacteria, not fungi. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for dermatomycosis treatment is Griseofulvin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Pyrimethamine (D) for toxoplasmosis treatment: 1. Pyrimethamine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase enzyme in Toxoplasma gondii. 2. This disrupts folate metabolism and impairs parasite growth. 3. Pyrimethamine is a standard treatment for toxoplasmosis. 4. Chloroquine (A) is used for malaria, Tetracycline (B) for bacterial infections, and Suramin (C) for African trypanosomiasis.