ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Flashcards Questions
Question 1 of 5
Extreme eosinophilia suggests
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, recognizing signs and symptoms of various conditions is crucial for providing effective care. Extreme eosinophilia, which refers to an abnormally high level of eosinophils in the blood, suggests a drug reaction. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. When a medication triggers an immune response, it can result in extreme eosinophilia as the body tries to fight off the perceived threat. Option A, a drug reaction, is the correct answer because medications can elicit immune responses leading to extreme eosinophilia. Options B, C, and D, which are allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis, and asthma, respectively, are conditions associated with allergic responses but not specifically linked to extreme eosinophilia caused by drug reactions. In an educational context, understanding the significance of extreme eosinophilia can help healthcare providers identify potential adverse drug reactions in pediatric patients. It underscores the importance of thorough patient assessments, monitoring for unusual laboratory findings, and considering the possibility of medication-related complications in clinical practice. By mastering this concept, nurses can enhance their clinical judgment and provide safer care to pediatric patients.
Question 2 of 5
The MOST common reported adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) sedation. First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine, commonly cause sedation due to their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert central nervous system effects. This sedative effect is a well-known adverse reaction associated with these medications. Option B) blurred vision is not the most common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines. While these medications can cause blurred vision, it is not as prevalent as sedation. Option C) urinary retention is not a commonly reported adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines. Anticholinergic effects, such as urinary retention, are more commonly associated with medications like anticholinergics used to treat overactive bladder. Option D) dry mouth is another common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines; however, it is not the MOST common reported adverse effect. Dry mouth is a result of the anticholinergic properties of these medications. In an educational context, understanding the common adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing where dosage and side effect management are critical. Knowing that sedation is the most common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines can help nurses anticipate and manage this side effect in pediatric patients to ensure their safety and well-being.
Question 3 of 5
The absence of dermal symptoms does not exclude anaphylaxis, because patients who present with cutaneous symptoms (urticaria, angioedema, flushing, warmth) are
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 90%. In pediatric nursing, it is crucial to understand the manifestations of anaphylaxis, as timely recognition and intervention are vital in saving a child's life. While some may associate anaphylaxis primarily with dermal symptoms like hives and swelling, it is essential to know that the absence of these skin symptoms does not rule out anaphylaxis. The correct answer, 90%, highlights that a significant proportion of patients who present with anaphylaxis may not exhibit dermal symptoms. This underscores the importance of considering anaphylaxis in the differential diagnosis even in the absence of typical skin manifestations. Option A) 50%, Option C) 70%, and Option D) 80% are incorrect because they suggest a lower likelihood of patients presenting without dermal symptoms in anaphylaxis cases. Understanding that the absence of skin symptoms does not exclude anaphylaxis is critical for healthcare providers to prevent delays in diagnosis and treatment. Educationally, this question emphasizes the need for nurses to have a broad understanding of anaphylaxis presentations beyond just dermal symptoms. It encourages critical thinking and challenges assumptions, preparing nurses to provide comprehensive care to pediatric patients in various clinical scenarios.
Question 4 of 5
Which renal condition is most commonly associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD). ARPKD is most commonly associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis due to its characteristic features of cystic dilation of renal collecting ducts and congenital hepatic fibrosis. This condition is often detected in infancy or childhood and presents with symptoms such as hepatomegaly, portal hypertension, and renal failure. Option B) Horseshoe kidney is a congenital renal anomaly where the kidneys are fused at the lower poles. While it can be associated with other congenital abnormalities, it is not typically linked to congenital hepatic fibrosis. Option C) Multicystic dysplastic kidney is a common congenital anomaly characterized by non-communicating cysts in the kidney. It is not typically associated with hepatic fibrosis. Option D) Nephronophthisis is a rare genetic disorder that causes kidney cysts and leads to chronic kidney disease. It is not commonly linked to congenital hepatic fibrosis. Educationally, understanding the association between ARPKD and congenital hepatic fibrosis is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with these conditions. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of ARPKD and its complications, including hepatic fibrosis, is essential for early detection, management, and intervention to improve patient outcomes. This knowledge empowers nurses to provide comprehensive care and support to children and families affected by these complex conditions.
Question 5 of 5
What is the inheritance pattern of complete androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic conditions is crucial for providing effective care to pediatric patients. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS) is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes are unable to respond to androgens, resulting in physical characteristics of females. The inheritance pattern of CAIS is X-linked recessive. The correct answer, option D, X-linked recessive, is the right choice because the gene responsible for CAIS is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the affected X chromosome, they will have the condition. Females have two X chromosomes, so they would need to inherit two affected X chromosomes to manifest CAIS. Options A, B, and C can be ruled out as incorrect because CAIS does not follow an autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or mitochondrial inheritance pattern. Autosomal dominant conditions typically do not skip generations, which is not the case with CAIS. Autosomal recessive conditions require two copies of the gene to be affected, which is not applicable to CAIS in females. Mitochondrial inheritance is passed from mother to all offspring and does not involve the X chromosome like CAIS. Educationally, understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic conditions like CAIS helps pediatric nurses provide comprehensive care, anticipate potential complications, and offer appropriate support to patients and families. It also underscores the importance of genetic counseling and family education in managing genetic conditions in pediatric patients.