Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

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Question 1 of 9

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with a sore throat and fever had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-positive cocci in chains and is catalase-negative. S. pyogenes commonly causes sore throat (pharyngitis) and fever, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and is not typically associated with pharyngitis. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is not typically found in chains and is rarely a cause of acute pharyngitis. Micrococcus luteus (D) is not typically associated with pharyngitis and is catalase-positive.

Question 3 of 9

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.

Question 4 of 9

Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Question 5 of 9

Infection caused by the genus Candida can be successfully treated with:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.

Question 6 of 9

Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two equal parts. Bacteria reproduce through binary fission, splitting into two identical daughter cells. Viruses are not considered living organisms and reproduce by infecting host cells. Fungi reproduce through spores or sexual reproduction. Helminths are parasitic worms that reproduce sexually. Therefore, the correct answer is B, bacteria, as they specifically utilize binary fission for reproduction.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.

Question 8 of 9

A patient's blood culture revealed Gram-positive rods capable of spore formation. They were also motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium fits all the characteristics mentioned: Gram-positive rods with spore formation, motile, and gas production in nutrient broth. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene, which aligns with the gas production in nutrient broth. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically produce gas. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and does not form spores that are motile. Bacillus cereus (D) is a common cause of food poisoning and does not cause gas gangrene.

Question 9 of 9

The growth phase in which bacteria adapt to the conditions of cultivation is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lag phase. During the lag phase, bacteria adapt to the new environment before starting to grow and divide. This phase is characterized by a period of low growth as bacteria adjust their metabolism to the available nutrients. The stationary phase (A) is when growth rate equals death rate, the log phase (B) is rapid exponential growth, and the death phase (D) is when cells start to die due to nutrient depletion or accumulation of waste products. Thus, the lag phase is the initial phase where bacteria prepare for growth, making it the correct answer.

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