Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

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Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.

Question 2 of 9

The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had fecal analysis revealing small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum. These bacteria do not form spores or capsules and thrive in alkaline conditions. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium. Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities. Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments. Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.

Question 4 of 9

What measures should be applied to prevent hospital-acquired infections:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all measures mentioned are important in preventing hospital-acquired infections. Isolating the source helps prevent the spread of infections. Isolating at-risk patients reduces their exposure. Increasing patient resistance to infections through proper hygiene and immunizations minimizes susceptibility. Each measure plays a crucial role in infection prevention, making all options correct.

Question 5 of 9

The term bacilli is related to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term bacilli refers to rod-shaped bacteria, typically found in the Gram-positive group. Spore-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, are characterized by their rod shape. Choice A is incorrect as the color in Gram staining does not define bacilli. Choice C is incorrect as peptidoglycan content does not determine the classification of bacilli. Choice D is incorrect as bacilli do have a specific characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is B due to the shape and characteristic of spore-forming bacteria.

Question 6 of 9

When cultured on solid growth media, bacteria with long O-specific chains form:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.

Question 7 of 9

Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: biofilms. Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms that adhere to a surface and are embedded in a matrix. This is the most appropriate term as it specifically describes the organization of various species into complex communities on a surface. Colonies (A) refer to groups of cells of the same species, not necessarily multiple species. Ecosystems (C) are broader systems involving interactions between living organisms and their environment. Plagues (D) are outbreaks of disease, not a term used to describe organized microbial communities.

Question 8 of 9

Bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment are referred to as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt environments. They have adapted to survive and grow in areas with high salt concentrations. This preference for high salt levels is what distinguishes halophiles from other types of bacteria. A: Calciphiles are bacteria that prefer high levels of calcium. C: Osmophiles are bacteria that thrive in environments with high sugar concentrations. D: Mesophiles are bacteria that prefer moderate temperature ranges for growth. In summary, the correct term for bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment is halophiles, making choices A, C, and D incorrect in this context.

Question 9 of 9

A family has two children. The younger child is under the year. The child has developed spastic cough attacks. Similar clinical presentation was observed in the elder preschool child one month ago. The doctor suspects pertussis infection. What method enables retrospective diagnostics of this disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serological. Serological testing involves analyzing blood samples for specific antibodies produced in response to the pertussis infection. This method can detect past infections by identifying the presence of antibodies against the pertussis bacteria in the blood. In this case, since the doctor suspects pertussis infection in both children, serological testing can confirm if they have been exposed to the bacteria. Summary: B: Biological testing does not specifically target pertussis antibodies in the blood. C: Bacteriological testing involves culturing bacteria from samples, which may not be as sensitive for retrospective diagnosis. D: Molecular biological testing focuses on genetic material of the bacteria, which may not provide direct evidence of past infection.

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