Examination of a smear from a chancre revealed mobile, long, spiral microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. What is the causative agent?

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Question 1 of 9

Examination of a smear from a chancre revealed mobile, long, spiral microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. The characteristics described match Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. Treponema has long, spiral shape with 8-12 regular coils. Leptospira (B) is a spirochete but has fewer coils and causes leptospirosis. Borrelia (C) is another spirochete but typically has irregular coils and causes Lyme disease. Vibrios (D) are curved rods and not spirochetes.

Question 2 of 9

A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.

Question 3 of 9

Elementary and reticular bodies are morphological?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. Elementary bodies (EBs) and reticular bodies (RBs) are two distinct forms of Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium causing various infections. EBs are the infectious form, while RBs are the replicative form within host cells. Mycoplasma genitalium (choice A) lacks a cell wall and does not have these specific morphological forms. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) is an obligate intracellular bacterium but does not exhibit the elementary and reticular body forms characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as only Chlamydia trachomatis exhibits the elementary and reticular bodies.

Question 4 of 9

The bacteria that produces a thick pseudomembrane in the throat is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria responsible for causing diphtheria, characterized by a thick pseudomembrane in the throat. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat but does not produce a pseudomembrane. 3. Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis and septicemia, not a throat pseudomembrane. 4. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not throat-related symptoms.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.

Question 6 of 9

Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses due to its presence in undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk. Campylobacteriosis is a leading cause of bacterial gastroenteritis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) causes pneumonia, not foodborne illnesses. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) causes tuberculosis, not foodborne illnesses. Haemophilus influenzae (D) can cause respiratory infections but is not commonly associated with foodborne illnesses.

Question 7 of 9

After 4 months of treatment for tuberculosis the patient began complaining of toes and fingers numbness, sensation of creeps. He was diagnosed with polyneuritis. What antituberculous drug might have caused these complications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, especially with prolonged use. It can lead to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the toes and fingers due to its neurotoxic effects. Rifampicin (B) is less likely to cause neuropathy. Ciprofloxacin (C) is not typically associated with neuropathy. Sodium salt of benzylpenicillin (D) is an antibiotic but is not known to cause polyneuritis.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following stains is the most widely used differential stain in hematology laboratories?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kinyoun stain. This stain is the most widely used differential stain in hematology labs because it is specifically designed for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It differentiates these bacteria from others based on their cell wall composition. Carbolfuchsin stain (A) is used for acid-fast bacteria in microbiology. Wright's stain (B) is used for blood cell morphology. Ziehl-Neelsen stain (C) is also used for acid-fast bacteria but is less commonly used compared to Kinyoun stain in hematology labs.

Question 9 of 9

Prophylaxis of smallpox and revaccination is performed:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because smallpox vaccination provides long-lasting immunity, often for a lifetime. Revaccination is not necessary as the initial vaccine confers sufficient protection. Choice A is incorrect because yearly revaccination is unnecessary and excessive. Choice B and C are also incorrect as there is no need for revaccination every second or third year. The key is to understand that smallpox vaccination typically provides lifelong immunity, making ongoing revaccination unnecessary.

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