ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 2 of 9
Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.
Question 3 of 9
A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietarychoices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes fiber-rich whole wheat bread, grapes, and walnuts which promote healthy bowel elimination. Whole wheat bread and fruits provide dietary fiber that aids in digestion and prevents constipation. Walnuts are high in omega-3 fatty acids which can also help with bowel regularity. Option A (Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread) lacks fiber and may cause constipation due to the low fiber content. Option B (Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy) may be low in fiber and high in fat, which can slow down digestion. Option D (Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing) is a healthier choice but may lack sufficient fiber for promoting healthy bowel elimination compared to option C.
Question 6 of 9
A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epistaxis (nose bleed). Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding. Epistaxis is a common symptom of thrombocytopenia due to the lack of platelets to aid in clot formation. Assessing for epistaxis in patients receiving carmustine is crucial to monitor and manage potential bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with thrombocytopenia.
Question 7 of 9
A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurses own grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking time off from work to mourn allows the nurse to process their emotions and prevent burnout. This self-care step promotes mental well-being and helps prevent the nurse from being overwhelmed by their grief. Choice B is incorrect as it may prolong the grieving process and create a constant reminder of the loss. Choice C could potentially burden the patient's family with the nurse's grief, making it an inappropriate action. Choice D, attending the memorial service, may be emotionally challenging and may not provide the nurse with the necessary space to cope with their grief effectively.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.
Question 9 of 9
A 45-year-old woman comes into the health clinic for her annual check-up. She mentions to the nurse that she has noticed dimpling of the right breast that has occurred in a few months. What assessment would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Palpating the area for a breast mass is the most appropriate assessment in this scenario as dimpling of the breast can be a sign of underlying breast abnormalities such as a mass or tumor. By palpating the area, the nurse can determine if there is a lump or any other irregularity that may require further investigation. Choice A is incorrect because evaluating the patient's milk production is not relevant to the presenting symptom of breast dimpling. Choice C is incorrect as assessing the patient's knowledge of breast cancer does not address the immediate need for a physical assessment of the breast dimpling. Choice D is incorrect because assuming that the dimpling is just an age-related change without further assessment could delay potential diagnosis and treatment of a serious condition.