ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching patients about health care information. Which patient will the nurse assess closely for health literacy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because patients with lower health literacy, such as those with a high-school diploma, may struggle to understand complex health information. The nurse should assess this patient closely to ensure they comprehend and can follow instructions. Patients with higher education levels (college degree) may have better health literacy skills. Age alone (35 or 68 years old) does not determine health literacy level. It is essential to focus on the patient's educational background to assess their health literacy effectively.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is preparing to check the gastric aspirate for pH. Which equipment will the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 10-mL Luer-Lok syringe. The nurse should use this syringe to obtain a gastric aspirate for pH testing because it allows for accurate measurement of the aspirate volume. Asepto syringe (B) is not suitable for this purpose as it is not designed for accurate measurement. Sterile gloves (C) and double gloves (D) are not equipment used specifically for obtaining gastric aspirate for pH testing. Sterile gloves are used for infection control, and double gloves are used for additional protection during procedures.
Question 4 of 9
A child is undergoing testing for food allergies after experiencing unexplained signs and symptoms of hypersensitivity. What food items would the nurse inform the parents are common allergens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eggs and wheat. This is because eggs and wheat are common food allergens in children. Eggs contain proteins that can trigger allergic reactions, while wheat contains gluten, a common allergen. Citrus fruits and rice (choice A) are not common allergens. Root vegetables and tomatoes (choice B) are also less likely to cause allergies. Hard cheeses and vegetable oils (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in children. Therefore, informing the parents about eggs and wheat as common allergens is crucial for the child's testing and management of food allergies.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
Question 6 of 9
An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.
Question 9 of 9
An adolescent patients history of skin hyperreactivity and inflammation has been attributed to atopic dermatitis. The nurse should recognize that this patient consequently faces an increased risk of what health problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Asthma. Atopic dermatitis is associated with a heightened immune response and inflammation, which can predispose individuals to developing asthma. Both conditions involve an overactive immune response and can coexist in patients due to shared genetic and environmental factors. Asthma commonly presents alongside atopic dermatitis in individuals with atopic tendencies. Bronchitis (choice A) is a respiratory condition caused by inflammation of the bronchial tubes and is not directly linked to atopic dermatitis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice B) and rheumatoid arthritis (choice C) are autoimmune diseases that primarily affect the joints and other organs, but they are not typically associated with atopic dermatitis.