Questions 9

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ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 10 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. What causative agents are they?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida. The whitish spots resembling coagulated milk on the mucous membranes are characteristic of oral thrush, a condition caused by Candida species. Candida is a gram-positive oval yeast-like fungus commonly found in the oral cavity. Staphylococci (B) are gram-positive cocci, not yeast-like cells. Diphtheria bacillus (C) causes diphtheria, not oral thrush. Actinomycetes (D) are filamentous bacteria, not yeast-like cells typically seen in oral thrush. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on the clinical presentation and microscopic findings.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a wound infection had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus species. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive characteristics match with Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of wound infections due to its virulence factors. 4. Other choices are incorrect: B) S. epidermidis is coagulase-negative and a common contaminant, C) S. pyogenes is catalase-negative, D) Enterococcus faecalis is not typically associated with wound infections.

Question 3 of 5

There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculine. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin. This test helps determine if a person has been exposed to the bacteria that cause TB. Administering tuberculin is crucial for the Mantoux test as it triggers a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals previously exposed to TB. Choice B (BCG vaccine) is incorrect because BCG does not interfere with the Mantoux test results. Choice C (DPT vaccine) is incorrect as it is used for immunization against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not for diagnosing TB. Choice D (Tularin test) is incorrect as it is not a recognized immunobiological agent for TB diagnosis.

Question 4 of 5

A man is suffering from diarrhea. In summer he spent his vacation in the south at the sea coast. Bacteria with the following properties were detected in his feces: gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli that do not produce spores or capsules. They are undemanding to nutrient medium but require alkaline reaction (Ñ€H 8.5-9.5). Described are the agents of the following enteric infection:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is A (Cholera): 1. Gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli: Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, fits this description. 2. Do not produce spores or capsules: Vibrio cholerae does not produce spores or capsules. 3. Require alkaline reaction (pH 8.5-9.5): Vibrio cholerae thrives in alkaline environments. 4. Enteric infection: Cholera is a classic example of an enteric infection transmitted through contaminated food or water. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Shigellosis is caused by Shigella species, which are gram-negative, but they are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH. C: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi, which are gram-negative but are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a wound infection had a Gram-positive cocci isolated from the sample. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This is because Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive, which matches the characteristics described in the question. Staphylococcus epidermidis is also Gram-positive but is coagulase-negative. Streptococcus pneumoniae is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus aureus is the likely causative agent of the wound infection.

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