ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Every pregnant woman preparing for labor and delivery have a birth plan. What is the Primary objective of a birth plan? It describes _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary objective of a birth plan is to provide a pregnant woman the opportunity to outline her wishes and preferences regarding her labor, delivery, and postpartum care. It allows the mother-to-be to communicate her desires to the healthcare team in advance, ensuring that her preferences are considered and respected during the birthing process. A birth plan typically covers various aspects such as pain management options, who she wants present during labor, interventions she may want to avoid, plans for after birth care, and any other specific requests she may have. Ultimately, a birth plan aims to empower the woman to have a more personalized and satisfying birth experience by actively involving her in the decision-making process.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal hemolytic anemia, elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, and presence of schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder that leads to hemolytic anemia in response to oxidative stress. The patient's presentation of fatigue, weakness, and jaundice along with laboratory findings of hemolytic anemia (evidenced by schistocytes), elevated LDH, and decreased haptoglobin are all characteristic of G6PD deficiency. The oxidative stress causes red blood cell destruction, resulting in the release of LDH and bilirubin, leading to jaundice. Decreased haptoglobin is seen due to its consumption in binding free hemoglobin released from the lysed red blood cells. Additionally, the presence of schistocytes on a peripheral blood smear is indicative of red blood cell fragmentation, a common finding in hemolytic anemias including G6PD deficiency
Question 3 of 9
During the postpartum assessment, a new mother reports experiencing mild cramping and uterine contractions while breastfeeding. What physiological process is responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin release is responsible for the mild cramping and uterine contractions experienced by the new mother while breastfeeding. When a baby suckles at the breast, it stimulates nerve endings that signal the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in stimulating the contraction of the uterine muscles, helping the uterus to contract back to its pre-pregnancy size. This process, known as uterine involution, is essential for postpartum recovery and preventing excessive bleeding. Therefore, the new mother's experience of mild cramping and uterine contractions while breastfeeding is a normal physiological response mediated by the release of oxytocin.
Question 4 of 9
A postpartum client who experienced a prolonged labor and instrumental delivery expresses concerns about breastfeeding difficulties. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to support successful breastfeeding in this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the situation described, where the client experienced a prolonged labor and instrumental delivery, there may be physical and emotional factors impacting breastfeeding success. A lactation consultant is a specialized healthcare provider who can assess the client's breastfeeding difficulties, offer individualized support, and provide guidance on techniques to overcome challenges such as latch issues, positioning problems, and milk supply concerns. Referring the client to a lactation consultant will help ensure that she receives expert assistance tailored to her specific needs, thereby increasing the likelihood of successful breastfeeding. This proactive approach focuses on addressing the root causes of breastfeeding difficulties and supporting the client in achieving her breastfeeding goals.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the formation of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones within the renal collecting system?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrolithiasis refers to the formation of stones within the kidney or urinary tract. The most common types of kidney stones are either composed of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate. When these stones form within the renal collecting system, they can lead to symptoms such as flank pain, hematuria, and urinary obstruction. Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction and ureterovesical junction (UVJ) obstruction are specific types of blockages within the urinary system that can be caused by kidney stones but are not characteristic of the stone formation itself. Renal colic is the term used to describe the severe pain associated with the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Rica is in charge of the animal bite program of the health center, which of the following is the causative agent of rabies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabies is a viral disease that affects the central nervous system. It is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, such as dogs, bats, raccoons, and foxes. The causative agent of rabies is the rabies virus, specifically from the genus Lyssavirus. Once the virus enters the body, it spreads through the nervous system to the brain, leading to severe neurological symptoms and, if left untreated, is almost always fatal. This is why prompt medical attention and vaccination following an animal bite are crucial in preventing the development of rabies in humans.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye, along with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels, is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In CRAO, there is a sudden blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to ischemia of the retina. The cherry-red spot represents the preserved choroid blood flow against the ischemic retina. The attenuated retinal vessels are a result of decreased blood flow in the retinal circulation. This condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency and requires immediate evaluation and management to prevent permanent vision loss.
Question 8 of 9
The patient with diagnosis of schizophrenia who has been taking Clozapine will inform the patients family that the positive effect of this drug is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication primarily used in the treatment of schizophrenia. One of the positive effects of Clozapine is the reduction of psychotic symptoms experienced by the patient, such as hallucinations (not hearing loss). Clozapine is effective in managing both positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking) and negative symptoms (apathy, social withdrawal, lack of motivation) of schizophrenia. It is known for its efficacy in reducing hallucinations and other psychotic symptoms, helping the patient to lead a more stable and functional life.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting is to immobilize the injured area in order to prevent further injury. By stabilizing the fracture, splinting helps to reduce movement, which can alleviate pain, prevent additional damage to surrounding tissues, and minimize the risk of causing more harm during transport or while providing care. Splinting also helps to maintain proper alignment of the bones, which is crucial for the healing process and long-term function of the injured limb.