Erysipelas is a bacterial infection characterised by well-defined areas of bright-red, inflamed and rough or leathery skin. Which one is the causative agent:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Choice C (Streptococcus pyogenes) being the correct answer: 1. Erysipelas is a skin infection characterized by well-defined red, inflamed skin areas. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common causative agent of erysipelas. 3. This bacterium produces enzymes that break down skin proteins, leading to the characteristic symptoms of erysipelas. 4. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin infections, including erysipelas. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Typically causes opportunistic infections, but not commonly associated with erysipelas. B. Staphylococcus aureus: Can cause skin infections, but not typically associated with erysipelas. D. Candida albicans: Fungal infection, not a bacterium, and not known to cause erysipelas.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbenicillin disodium. Carbenicillin is a semisynthetic penicillin that has marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is due to its extended spectrum of activity and increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Carbenicillin is commonly used to treat infections caused by this bacterium. Choice B: Benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G) has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice C: Methicillin is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice D: Oxacillin also has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In summary, Carbenicillin is the correct choice due to its marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa compared to the other penicillins listed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating lambliosis due to its effectiveness against Giardia lamblia, the parasite causing the infection. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Erythromycin (choice B) is not effective against Giardia lamblia. Monomycin (choice C) and Chingamin (choice D) are not commonly used for treating lambliosis. Therefore, choice A, Metronidazole, is the correct medication for this patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease. Mycobacterium leprae specifically targets the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. It is an acid-fast bacterium with a slow growth rate, making it difficult to culture in the laboratory. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice A) is responsible for various infections such as strep throat, Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) causes gonorrhea, and Escherichia coli (choice D) is commonly found in the gut and can lead to various infections but not leprosy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by foamy purulent vaginal discharges. Microscopy of vaginal discharge showing flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane and pear-shaped structure is indicative of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness and is transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies. Lamblia intestinalis causes giardiasis and is characterized by diarrhea and flatulence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium is known for producing botulinum toxin, which causes botulism. It is an anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium commonly found in soil. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not botulism. Staphylococcus aureus can cause food poisoning but not botulism. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is responsible for gonorrhea, not botulism. Therefore, A is the correct answer due to the specific association of Clostridium botulinum with botulism toxin production.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses, confirmed by scientific research. Step 2: Poxviruses replicate entirely in the cytoplasm, unlike most DNA viruses. Step 3: Cytoplasmic replication is a unique characteristic of poxviruses. Step 4: The replication process of poxviruses in the cytoplasm is well-documented. Step 5: Therefore, option A (TRUE) is correct, as poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm exclusively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. Elementary bodies (EBs) and reticular bodies (RBs) are two distinct forms of Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium causing various infections. EBs are the infectious form, while RBs are the replicative form within host cells. Mycoplasma genitalium (choice A) lacks a cell wall and does not have these specific morphological forms. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) is an obligate intracellular bacterium but does not exhibit the elementary and reticular body forms characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as only Chlamydia trachomatis exhibits the elementary and reticular bodies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Vancomycin, because it is not a beta-lactam antibiotic. Beta-lactam antibiotics contain a beta-lactam ring in their molecular structure, which Vancomycin lacks. Benzylpenicillin, Cephalosporin, and Monobactam all contain the beta-lactam ring, making them beta-lactam antibiotics. Vancomycin belongs to a different class of antibiotics called glycopeptides.