enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. The rationale is that sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) can sometimes be associated with viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that can potentially help treat the underlying viral infection causing SSHL. It is important to address the potential viral etiology before considering other treatments. Summary of other choices: B: Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not SSHL. C: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, not indicated for SSHL. D: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is sometimes used for SSHL, but addressing any potential viral infection with Acyclovir would be a more appropriate initial step.

Question 2 of 5

Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption is collectively referred to as

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Couvelaire uterus. This condition refers to the bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus associated with placental abruption. Placental abruption occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely, leading to bleeding and a compromised blood supply to the uterus. The bruised appearance is due to blood infiltrating the myometrium. Explanation for other choices: A: Wernicke’s encephalopathy - This is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, not related to uterine issues. B: Uterine prolapse - This is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vaginal canal, not related to placental abruption. D: Asherman’s syndrome - This is characterized by intrauterine adhesions or scar tissue, typically a result of uterine surgery, not associated with placental abruption.

Question 3 of 5

A cause of shoulder presentation is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios, which is low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to reduced cushioning in the uterus, allowing the fetus to assume abnormal positions like shoulder presentation. Macerated fetus (choice A) is related to prolonged fetal death, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (choice B) may increase the risk of complications but is not a direct cause of shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (choice D) is the premature separation of the placenta, which can lead to fetal distress but is not specifically linked to shoulder presentation.

Question 4 of 5

A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram negative infection. In sepsis, especially with a Gram negative infection, organ donation may pose a risk of transmitting the infection to the recipient. This can be life-threatening for the organ recipient. Renal failure (choice A), traumatic brain injury (choice B), and breast cancer (choice D) are not direct contraindications to organ donation. Renal failure may limit the suitability of certain organs, but it does not automatically disqualify a patient from donating other organs. Traumatic brain injury may impact brain donation but does not rule out other organ donation. Breast cancer may affect eligibility for certain organs but does not universally disqualify a patient from organ donation.

Question 5 of 5

For questions 91 & 92, match the following with the statements in column A by indicating the correct number

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Precipitate labor. Precipitate labor refers to a rapid labor and delivery process. It is matched with the statement in column A because it is associated with a sudden and quick progression of labor, leading to a rapid delivery of the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Colicky uterus - This term is not related to rapid labor but rather refers to uterine contractions that are painful and intermittent. B: Constriction ring dystocia - This term describes a condition where there is a tight band around the uterus, causing difficulty in the delivery process, which is different from the rapid progression seen in precipitate labor. D: Cervical dystocia - This term refers to a condition where there are issues with the dilation or effacement of the cervix, not directly related to the speed of labor as in precipitate labor.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

 

Similar Questions