Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Endocrine changes in a bulimic patient, such as Sherry, can lead to disruptions in the pituitary gland's function. Hypopituitarism refers to a disorder in which the pituitary gland does not produce one or more of its hormones adequately. This can result in hormonal imbalances and have various effects on the body's functions. In Sherry's case, developing hypopituitarism would be an expected change due to the endocrine disruptions associated with bulimia. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and address these endocrine changes in bulimic patients to prevent further complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee, along with a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line, is highly suggestive of a meniscus injury. The McMurray's test specifically evaluates for meniscal tears. In this case, the presence of pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation indicates a medial meniscus tear as the most likely diagnosis. Patellar tendinitis usually presents with anterior knee pain that is worsened by activities such as jumping or running. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain typically presents with lateral knee pain and instability. Quadriceps tendon rupture would present with significant weakness and inability to fully extend the knee, which is not described in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In primary care nursing, typically, one nurse is designated to have 24-hour responsibility for care planning and coordination for each patient. This helps ensure continuity of care and accountability. By having one nurse overseeing all aspects of the patient's care, it allows for a more personalized and coordinated approach that puts the patient at the center of the care structure. Having one primary care nurse also promotes better communication, efficiency, and consistency in managing the patient's health and well-being.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Antipsychotic medications can cause metabolic side effects, including hyperglycemia (high blood sugar). Patients with bipolar disorder who are prescribed antipsychotic medications are at risk for developing new-onset diabetes or exacerbating preexisting diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential to detect hyperglycemia early and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. While hypertension, hypotension, and hypernatremia are possible side effects of certain medications, they are not typically associated with antipsychotic medications commonly used in the management of bipolar disorder. Hyperglycemia is a serious concern in this population due to the risk of developing diabetes or worsening of existing diabetes.