ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Elderly patients are known to have a number of medications, what is the highest priority for these patients related to polypharmacy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drug interactions. Elderly patients are at higher risk for drug interactions due to age-related changes in metabolism and multiple medications. This can lead to adverse effects, reduced efficacy, or toxicity. It is the highest priority as it directly impacts patient safety. Summary of other choices: B: Cost of medications - While important, it is not as critical as drug interactions for patient safety. C: Schedule of medications - Important for adherence but not as urgent as addressing potential drug interactions. D: Nonadherence to drug regimen - Also important, but drug interactions pose a more immediate risk to the patient's health.
Question 2 of 5
A 2-year-old presents to the clinic with otalgia and fever. The left tympanic membrane (TM) is erythematous and bulging; The right TMs is perforated and draining. The child's parents states, “this is the fifth ear infection this year. What can we do?†What action will the provider take to address the child's ear problems?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist. Rationale: 1. Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a recommended first-line antibiotic for recurrent otitis media due to its broad spectrum coverage. 2. Referring the child to an otolaryngologist is necessary for further evaluation and management of recurrent ear infections, as this child has had multiple episodes in a year. Summary of other choices: A: Prescribing both high dose amoxicillin and the influenza vaccine is not the best option as the child already has recurrent ear infections and needs a more comprehensive approach. B: Beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is not recommended as a first-line treatment for recurrent otitis media. C: Prescribing ceftriaxone IV with benzocaine ear drops is not the optimal choice for managing recurrent ear infections in a 2-year-old.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is administered cefotetan for a urinary tract infection. After two days, the patient complains of stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, excessive sweating, itching, and headache. The patient also has decreased blood pressure. How would you interpret the assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cefotetan can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with ethanol, leading to symptoms such as stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, sweating, itching, headache, and decreased blood pressure. This reaction occurs due to the inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase by cefotetan, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when ethanol is consumed. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not explain the specific symptoms experienced by the patient, which are indicative of a disulfiram-like reaction triggered by the interaction between cefotetan and ethanol.
Question 4 of 5
A 24 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir, which is the first-line treatment for genital herpes simplex virus infection. Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA synthesis by competing with deoxyguanosine triphosphate for viral DNA polymerase. This leads to the termination of viral replication. Lamivudine (A) is used for HIV and hepatitis B infections. Cidofovir (B) is used for cytomegalovirus and other DNA virus infections, but not for herpes simplex virus. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza viruses, not herpes simplex virus.
Question 5 of 5
Below question: don't know the correct combination. Below is what was picked but incorrect. An elderly patient with hypertension and hyperlipidemia who has been prescribed a statin medication comes for a follow up visit after four months of therapy. The patient's laboratory reports show elevated blood cholesterol levels, in the urine examination reveals rhabdomyolysis. What would be the reasons for this condition? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because consuming fiber-rich foods can interfere with the absorption of statins, leading to decreased effectiveness and potential elevation in cholesterol levels. Fiber binds to statins in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing their absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cyclosporine, grapefruit juice, and amiodarone are known to interact with statins but do not directly cause rhabdomyolysis or elevated cholesterol levels in this scenario.