Effects of drugs in lowering blood cholesterol levels are additive with those of diet. This consideration is:

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ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

Effects of drugs in lowering blood cholesterol levels are additive with those of diet. This consideration is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology across the lifespan, understanding the effects of drugs in lowering blood cholesterol levels and their interaction with diet is crucial for effective patient care. The correct answer, A) TRUE, is supported by the fact that when drugs prescribed to reduce cholesterol levels are combined with dietary modifications aimed at lowering cholesterol intake (such as reducing saturated fats and cholesterol-rich foods), the overall impact on lowering blood cholesterol levels is additive. This is a fundamental concept in managing hyperlipidemia and cardiovascular health. Option B) FALSE is incorrect because research and clinical practice consistently demonstrate that the effects of drugs and diet on blood cholesterol levels can indeed be additive. By solely focusing on one aspect (either drugs or diet) and neglecting the other, optimal outcomes may not be achieved in cholesterol management. Options C) All of the above and D) None of the above are also incorrect as they do not appropriately address the specific relationship between drug therapy and dietary interventions in lowering blood cholesterol levels. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of a comprehensive approach to managing conditions like hyperlipidemia, emphasizing the synergy between pharmacological interventions and lifestyle modifications. By understanding and applying this concept, healthcare providers can better tailor treatment plans to individual patient needs, promoting better outcomes and overall cardiovascular health.

Question 2 of 5

Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are uricosuric drugs employed to decrease the body pool of urate in patients with tophaceous gout or in those with increasingly frequent gouty attacks. This consideration is:

Correct Answer:

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone increase uric acid excretion (uricosuric effect), reducing urate levels in chronic gout with tophi or frequent attacks. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are indeed uricosuric drugs that work by inhibiting the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of uric acid in the urine. This mechanism helps to decrease the body pool of urate, making these drugs beneficial in patients with tophaceous gout or those experiencing frequent gout attacks. Option A is incorrect because it does not provide any relevant information or rationale to support its validity. Option B is incorrect as it states the opposite of the correct answer, implying that these drugs do not decrease urate levels, which is false. Option C is also incorrect as it is a partial repeat of the correct answer without providing a complete rationale. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of uricosuric drugs like probenecid and sulfinpyrazone is crucial for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals to effectively manage conditions like gout. This knowledge helps in selecting appropriate treatment options and optimizing patient outcomes by reducing urate levels in the body.

Question 3 of 5

Side effect of calcitonin is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question from the ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan exam, the correct answer is A) Pruritus. Calcitonin is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting bone resorption. Pruritus, or itching, is a common side effect associated with the administration of calcitonin. This is due to the release of histamine, which can cause itching in some individuals. Option B) Hypotension is incorrect because calcitonin is not known to cause low blood pressure as a side effect. Option C) Fractures is also incorrect as calcitonin is actually used to treat fractures by helping to strengthen bones. Option D) Hypocalcemia is incorrect because calcitonin actually helps regulate calcium levels in the body and is not known to cause low calcium levels as a side effect. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications like calcitonin is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. It is important to be able to recognize potential side effects, like pruritus in this case, and take appropriate actions to manage them or report them to the healthcare team. This knowledge helps ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Indication for 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) administration is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Vitamin D resistance. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) is the active form of vitamin D in the body. Administering calcitriol is indicated in cases of vitamin D resistance, where the body is unable to respond effectively to vitamin D. By providing the active form directly, the body can bypass the resistance and still utilize vitamin D for its various functions, such as calcium absorption in the gut and bone health. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: B) Elevated skeletal turnover: This is not an indication for administering calcitriol. Elevated skeletal turnover may be seen in conditions like osteoporosis, but calcitriol is not the primary treatment for this. C) Hypercalcemia of malignancy: Administering calcitriol in hypercalcemia of malignancy would be contraindicated as it could further increase calcium levels in the blood. D) Hypophosphatemia: Calcitriol is not indicated for treating hypophosphatemia. In fact, administering calcitriol in hypophosphatemia can worsen the condition by increasing phosphate excretion in the urine. Educational context: Understanding the indications for administering medications like calcitriol is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing when to use a medication and when not to can prevent adverse effects and optimize treatment outcomes. Being able to differentiate between various indications helps in making informed clinical decisions.

Question 5 of 5

Conditions associated with hypophosphatemia include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the conditions associated with hypophosphatemia is crucial for safe and effective medication management. The correct answer is D) All of the above. Primary hyperparathyroidism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to increased renal phosphate excretion. Vitamin D deficiency can also cause hypophosphatemia as vitamin D is essential for intestinal absorption of phosphate. Idiopathic hypercalciuria, on the other hand, is not directly linked to hypophosphatemia. Educationally, knowing these associations can help healthcare providers identify potential causes of hypophosphatemia in patients, leading to appropriate diagnostic and treatment interventions. Understanding the underlying pathophysiology of hypophosphatemia is important for providing quality patient care and ensuring medication safety.

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