ED50 refers to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The median effective dose. ED50 refers to the dose of a drug that is required to produce a therapeutic effect in 50% of the population or experimental animals. This is a measure of the potency of a drug. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Half-life of the drug does not specifically refer to ED50. B: Half of the drug dose should be prescribed is not related to ED50, which is about effectiveness, not dosing. D: Half of the drug is eliminated is not the definition of ED50, as it pertains to the dose-response relationship, not elimination.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary. This choice is correct because African Americans tend to respond better to thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers in managing hypertension. Thiazide diuretics are recommended as first-line treatment in this population due to their effectiveness and lower risk of adverse effects. Calcium channel blockers are also preferred as they have shown good efficacy and tolerability. Choice A (Clonidine) is incorrect as it is not recommended as a primary treatment option for hypertension. Choice B (Betablockers) is also incorrect as they are not the preferred initial treatment in African American patients due to lower efficacy compared to other drug classes. Choice D (ACE-1 inhibitors) is incorrect as they are not recommended as first-line treatment in this population, as they may be less effective in African Americans compared to other drug classes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Treponema pallidum. This bacterium causes syphilis, a common sexually transmitted infection. Treponema pallidum is known for its transmission through sexual contact and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. The other choices (A, B, D) are not typically associated with sexually transmitted infections and do not match the characteristics of a common STI like syphilis. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on its known transmission route and association with sexually transmitted bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. When reviewing medical records, if a patient is scheduled for surgery and taking metformin, it's crucial to assess for the risk of hypoglycemia. Surgery can impact food intake and medication absorption, potentially leading to low blood sugar levels. This is important to prevent complications during surgery. Choice B: Hemorrhage is incorrect because metformin is not known to directly increase the risk of hemorrhage related to surgery. The main concern with metformin is hypoglycemia, not hemorrhage. Choices C and D were not provided, but the key point is to focus on the risk of hypoglycemia with metformin in a surgical setting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Combination OC. Combination oral contraceptives (OC) containing estrogen are not recommended for breast-feeding mothers due to potential adverse effects on milk supply and composition. Progestin-only methods, such as Depo-Provera (choice A) or progestin-only OC (choice B), are safer options. Intrauterine devices (choice D) are also considered safe for breast-feeding mothers as they have minimal systemic absorption. Therefore, the inappropriate choice for this patient is Combination OC (choice C) due to the presence of estrogen which can affect breast milk quality and supply.